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Can you give me any scriptual reasons for the apostacy?
Mt 15:9 (please read links before answering)http://www.goodnewsaboutgod.com/studies/holidays2.htm
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/08329a.htm
http://blog.360.yahoo.com/blog-VIY_Zv03crUGoASHW362nw--?p=2&n=28500

2007-11-21 07:07:52 · 4 answers · asked by zorrro857 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

4 answers

1 cor 4 20
the kingdom of GOD is not just words(theory/philosophy) but POWER!
and not sure where, peter, james, jude? maybe later/last book of paul
but the saying is the like of appearing godly but denying the power.
this is the traditional church TODAY..here in USA
if you think..the entire USA is a hypocrite.
having DOUBLE STANDARD..everywhere..in governement, federal to state, dept of education to business, as well in our workplaces and home.
example, other relgion is permit..but not ours? duh? unequal justice.

anyway back to quesiton. 1cor 12, eph 6, matt.10, luke 9, acts 1:8 speak about POWER OF THE HOLY SPIRIT..the entire book of action of apostles..speak of POWER of GOD.to cast out demons..lay hands on the sick..riase the dead..open eyes of the blind..ears of the deaf..lame to walk...limbs to grow..on and on.
THIS is COMING FIRST!!
before the apostate..which is actually fitting very well after the rapture..for faith in Christ didn't work for them.(10 virgin parable speak 5 were not anointed by the holy spirit and miss the coming of Christ).
their LOVE grew COLD
GOD is LOVE..so one must stay IN LOVE..to stay with GOD.
and mixed with scripture you put ROOTS INTO like a house build on ROCK..and waver not at what you see..heard or felt.
GOD is greater than satan..and HE is in us..to help us
overcome the wicked spirits.
the end is NOT YET.
correcting the pastors/priests is comiing..and the holy apostles and prophets are gonna be busy..here in USA..and elsewhere.
the presence of the HOLY SPIRIT must be allowed in churches
where tongues are allowed to flow..for healing and delivrance for the churches as well great wisdom will come forth from them who speak in tongues.
and i am one of them...by His doing..not my own.
for i am unschooled like the 12 apostles.

2007-11-21 07:22:26 · answer #1 · answered by blessedrobert 5 · 0 2

Scriptural reasons have already been given.

Israel can be said to be apostates at that time because they had only a FORM of devotion, but proved false worship necessary. (2Tim. 3:5)

Remember in the temple when Jesus threw out the money changers? The priests were getting a cut from each merchant exchanging foreign currencies for local. Then sellers of animals for sacrifice and resellers when the priests would tell them that was the wrong sacrifice for what they wanted to do. If they only had TV back then.

Can't you imagine a Jewish priest with a loud suit, pumped up hair (probably dyed white) rock solid with hair spray, mouthing a few holy words and every five minutes telling people to get local currency so they can get the right sacrifice at a kiosk near them! Probably a few shots of people making sacrifices in several lines, shouting praises, with a voice over pleading for money to keep the temple open!

2007-11-27 12:40:50 · answer #2 · answered by grnlow 7 · 0 0

I'm sorry, I don't understand the point of this question, or of the links. I must say, though, that it has a "Jehovah's Witness" ring to it.

"Israel in the time of Jesus had apostized" - I assume you mean "apostasized", and I'm not certain that is a word (apostasy is a noun, and normally a person is said to have "committed apostasy", not "apostasized").

So, let's say you meant "Israel was committing apostasy during Jesus' ministry". This is more precise, but is it accurate? Apostasy is the *complete* abandonment of one's former faith
http://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=apostasy

To make the claim that Israel, as a whole, was committing apostasy, you would have to have evidence that Israel, as a whole, was rejecting their faith in God. Clearly, this is not the case.

A *more* accurate (not wholly accurate) claim would be that Israel was (or had been) separating itself from the will of God. Of course, when we see *several* people (at least 70 + 13), all Jews, doing their best to obey the will of God in the gospels, I would have to say that this is not an entirely accurate statement, either. Then, I refer to the writings of the Essenes (a very Christian-like sect of Judaism present at that time), and I say that this is an over-generalization. Israel at this time was not a kingdom, and Judea was ruled by a Roman puppet. Israel meaning the entire population of the Jews was certainly not adverse to the teachings of Christ, though certainly the majority seem to have been so.

The verse to which you refer
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew%2015%20;&version=49;
can clearly be seen (when viewed in context) to refer only to those specific Pharisees and scribes who taught a doctrine that was contrary to the Law. It does not mention the Sadduccees or the Essenes, the other two major sects of Jewish priests present at the time of Jesus, nor does it include the general population of Jews. As we know (from scripture) that *many* Jews became Christians (literally thousands in Acts), it is clear that this statement is not accurate unless a narrow and unusual meaning of the word "Israel" is being used. If this is the case, you should explain what you mean, or state it in such a way that it is clear to someone with a common understanding of the word "Israel".

1st link - yes, some of the things associated with Christmas have pagan origins, but they do so no longer.
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Romans%2014:4-6;&version=49;
"He who observes the day, observes it for the Lord". This is not true of all who celebrate Christmas, but it is certainly true of devout Christians who celebrate Christmas. Clearly, this verse shows that it is *not* important what day is considered holy, but rather to whom it is observed.

2nd link - yes, Yahweh is likely the correct pronunciation of the tetragrammaton. Read my reviews of the New Jerusalem Bible http://www.jimpettis.com/bibles/njb.htm and the New World Translation http://www.jimpettis.com/bibles/nwt.htm

3rd link - the title "New Pope an JW" is both grammatically incorrect and dishonest. The new pope is not a Jehovah's Witness (did you think he was?), and we cannot see the date or the title of the periodical, let alone the story, and so have no way of verifying the other information on the web page. Considering the deliberate disinformation presented by the title, I think it safe to claim that the veracity of the rest of this web page is highly doubtful.

Jim, http://www.jimpettis. com/wheel/

2007-11-21 16:00:07 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

Yes. Among the varied causes of apostasy set forth in apostolic warnings were: lack of faith (Heb 3:12), lack of endurance in the face of persecution (Heb 10:32-39), abandonment of right moral standards (2Pe 2:15-22), the heeding of the “counterfeit words” of false teachers and “misleading inspired utterances” (2Pe 2:1-3)

At John 8:31, 32, Jesus said: "If you remain in my word, you will know the truth." It is obvious that Christendom has failed to remain in the words of Jesus. They have replaced his teachings with false doctrines like the immortality of the human soul, hellfire, and the trinity.

2007-11-21 15:21:01 · answer #4 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 1 0

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