I am a Calvinist, and we use the Presbyterian hymn book in our church (my dad is the pastor), but we have the edition of the book that has all the songs about baptizing infants taken out. I just want to know why you think that we're supposed to baptize unsaved people.
2007-11-21 03:08:58 · 7 answers · asked by Keith C 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
There are five references in the New Testament to the Baptism of entire households. Peter baptized the household of Cornelius (Acts 11: 14). In Philippi, Paul baptized the household of Lydia and the household of the jailer (Acts 16: 15, 33). He also baptized the household of Crispus, the ruler of the synagogue in Corinth. In his first epistle to the Corinthians, he speaks of baptizing the household of Stephanas (1: 16). The Greek word for household is oikon and refers to all the inhabitants of the house including slaves, servants, infants and children. Can anyone seriously suggest that within the households of Cornelius, Lydia, the Jailer, Crispus and Stephanas there were no children or infants present?
Your statement of why we're supposed to baptize unsaved people does not’t have any validity. There are many, supposedly saved and baptized, turnout to be reprobates.
Baptism is to be administered to any that are part of the visible church and profess their faith in Christ, and obedience to Him; but the infants of such as are members of the visible church are to be baptized.
2007-11-23 06:52:28 · answer #1 · answered by Steve 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Every verse that mentions baptism, if viewed from a covenant standpoint, will support infant baptism. It's when you cherry pick those verses and rip covenant theology away from that meeting, that you come up with a "credo" result that I don't believe reflects the true meaning of baptism. You seem to be attaching a meaning to it that has infants being baptized without their parents' belief, and this wouldn't happen anyway. To not baptize infants of a Christian family, would be the same non-baptism of infants in an atheist family, and you're left with an "automatic salvation" of everyone below the age of reason in order to cover the kids in the Christian family. But when infants were killed in the Old Testament, and the Hebrew kids were spared, what then? No, a mark is involved, and this mark means FAMILY, the family of God. It's up to Him of course as to whether a mark on the child is accepted, but Christians have their kids marked accordingly. The atheists wouldn't, and to count the unbeliever or any of the unbeliever's family, as Christian, is a gross error in my opinion.
2007-11-23 11:29:27 · answer #2 · answered by ccrider 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is a very in-depth question but the simple answer is the reformed position views infants as members of the covenant--in the same way the old testament viewed circumcised infants as a member of the covenant. Baptism takes the place of circumcision, and is a belief that by the grace of God your whole household will be saved (Philippian jailer book of acts). Baptism is not viewed as regenerative, and while infants are still considered born in sin--they are also in a way members of the visible church. This is why Presbyterians baptize infants (in a very abbreviated fashion).,
2007-11-21 11:20:42 · answer #3 · answered by Todd 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I wouldn't worry too much about what is or isn't in a hymnal. Lots of appropriate verses can be read from the BIble itself.
Jesus said to baptize new believers. It is a powerful symbol of faith (he did it himself). I know that when I did I received a great anointing from God to pray, minister and understand. It is a public acknowledgment of faith and that is important.
We just left the PCUSA last month after 18 years. Can't go with the gay ministers provision - it is opposed to God's order. It is heartbreaking.
Our new church "dedicates" infants, because there is the belief that baptism should be done when the person comes to their own personal faith. I kind of like that.
Enjoy your Thanksgiving.
2007-11-21 11:15:30 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Isn't that the point? Why baptize a "saved" person? Aren't you supposed to try to save all? But I guess saving an already saved person is alot easier. God forbid an "unsaved" person would want to be baptized.
2007-11-21 11:12:48 · answer #5 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Do they baptize or sprinkle them and call it baptism? Baptize means to bury, immerse fully.
2007-11-21 11:20:10 · answer #6 · answered by gigglings 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think that that particular ritual is more for the parents - asking them to promise God that they will raise the child in accordance with His rules.
2007-11-21 11:13:26 · answer #7 · answered by ZombieTrix 2012 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋