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I don't get it. To me, it only proves that Euler's Formula exists!

2007-11-21 01:23:25 · 31 answers · asked by I'm an Atheist 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

31 answers

I take it you are refering to
." Edward Kasner and James Newman in Mathematics and the Imagination note, "We can only reproduce the equation and not stop to inquire into its implications. It appeals equally to the mystic, the scientists, the mathematician." This formula of Leonhard Euler (1707-1783) unites the five most important symbols of mathematics: 1, 0, pi, e and i (the square root of minus one). This union was regarded as mystic union containing representatives from each branch of the mathematical tree: arithmetic is represented by 0 and 1, algebra by the symbol i, geometry by pi, and analysis by the transcendental e. Harvard mathematician Benjamin Pierce said about the formula, "That is surely true, it is absolutely paradoxical; we cannot understand it, and we don't know what it means, but we have proved it, and therefore we know it must be the truth."

http://godlorica.blogspot.com/2006/02/mathematics-and-god.html

2007-11-21 01:32:56 · answer #1 · answered by PROBLEM 7 · 6 0

Proof:

Suppose that God does not exist.

Then e^(pi*i)+1 does not = 0.

Thus if e^(pi*i)+1 = 0, God must Exist.

Proof End.

2015-06-18 03:34:04 · answer #2 · answered by Jon 1 · 2 3

What is ridiculous about this is that it shows how mathematical fields arise from each other - ie. we assume certain rules, and then build a system around those axioms. Euclidean geometry for example takes the rules of algebra (zero, negatives, etc.), assumes them to be true, then adds pi. But we could build entirely different systems if we assumed different rules - and mathematicians DO in fact. Google "non-Euclidean geometry" for example.
Some abstract fields even have rl applications, check eg. QM and general relativity.

The theology department as usual confuses the cause with the result, points at something human-made or what humans have developed to do and asks how it can be like that. Morons.

2015-02-07 23:26:21 · answer #3 · answered by Zem 2 · 2 0

This Site Might Help You.

RE:
How does e^(pi * i) + 1 = 0 prove God exists?
I don't get it. To me, it only proves that Euler's Formula exists!

2015-08-13 10:35:44 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

The story mentioned earlier about Diderot and Euler is just that, an apocryphal story made up to give someone his comeuppance. Diderot was not ignorant of Math and would not have fallen for such a bluff.

How does it prove it? It does not. The question is, how could it prove such a thing?

2015-06-13 17:33:14 · answer #5 · answered by phred 1 · 1 0

I think Euler got stuck giving Diderot a bad proof because it's the first one he came up with.

Euler's Formula is "supposed" to prove that God exists because it ties many of the important numbers of mathematics together with a very simple equation. The idea is that only God could have created a universe where e, i, and pi were so prevalent and all tied so neatly together into a single equation.

The equation doesn't include phi (the golden ratio), but people who think Euler's Formula is proof of design ignore that.

2007-11-21 01:32:16 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 3 3

To all the ^^ religious nuts ^^ (ie. my Christian family, God bless all of you) you cannot prove OR disprove that God exists, but this equation helps the mathematical (and possibly narrow minded) and the philosophical to put the (true) existence of God into a scientific context. As said above, have a wonderful day :))))

2015-07-11 09:28:34 · answer #7 · answered by fbgbrghr 1 · 0 1

E Ipi 1 0

2016-12-16 11:01:56 · answer #8 · answered by steffi 4 · 0 0

voilà comment je vois la chose: si e représente la base de l'espace avec i dans le temps réel et aussi le temps sans celui qu'on connaît mais le temps non palpable mais néanmoins présent, avec pi comme témoin de l'infini, ajouté au chiffre 1 qui est un nombre entier représentant un tout, cela équivaut à 0, symbole de ce qui représente tout ce qui est cité précédemment. Cette formule veut dire qu'il y aurait une intelligence supérieure à la nôtre.

2015-09-02 05:33:27 · answer #9 · answered by Maryse 1 · 0 0

Apparently, the equation proves that our minds are able to comprehend the logic of the mathematics we suppose governs our universe. (We defined the maths, and we use it to describe reality.) The equality proves nothing about god or gods.

2015-03-30 23:23:38 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

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