Was mary sinless?

Question

we know she isnt Gods mom but was she sinless?

Answer 1

mary was born a sinner....lived as a sinner and died a sinner

if shes in heaven she had to get there thru Jesus

Answer 2

It's assumed, because the Biblical account of the encounter between Mary and God's angel says the angel told her "Blessed are you Mary, full of Grace, because God has found you favorable"...favorable to be the host for his incarnation.

It's generally accepted that Mary was cleaned of all sin when she volunteered to do such a thing for God.

Answer 3

Being conceived without sin does not mean that Mary had no need of a redeemer. In fact, like every descendant of Adam, Mary had vital need of a redeemer. Mary's freedom from original sin was an unmerited gift of God in that she was redeemed by Christ at the moment of her conception. It is at the moment of conception that God creates the soul and hers was created in a state of sanctifying grace.

Answer 4

Was Mary herself immaculately conceived, free from original sin when her mother conceived her?

The New Catholic Encyclopedia (1967, Vol. VII, pp. 378-381) acknowledges regarding the origin of the belief: “ . . . the Immaculate Conception is not taught explicitly in Scripture . . . The earliest Church Fathers regarded Mary as holy but not as absolutely sinless. . . . It is impossible to give a precise date when the belief was held as a matter of faith, but by the 8th or 9th century it seems to have been generally admitted. . . . [In 1854 Pope Pius IX defined the dogma] ‘which holds that the most Blessed Virgin Mary was preserved from all stain of original sin in the first instant of her Conception.’” This belief was confirmed by Vatican II (1962-1965).—The Documents of Vatican II (New York, 1966), edited by W. M. Abbott, S.J., p. 88.

The Bible itself says: “Well then, sin entered the world through one man [Adam], and through sin death, and thus death has spread through the whole human race because everyone has sinned.” (Rom. 5:12, JB; italics added.) Does that include Mary? The Bible reports that in accord with the requirement of the Mosaic Law, 40 days after Jesus’ birth Mary offered at the temple in Jerusalem a sin offering for purification from uncleanness. She, too, had inherited sin and imperfection from Adam.—Luke 2:22-24; Lev. 12:1-8.

Answer 5

No she wasn't! The Bible is clear in this issue; everyone born after Adam are born in his likeness including Mary. Later, Mary had other children by her husband Joseph.

Answer 6

No, she wasn't sinless although she apparently followed all of the laws and was as "righteous" as Jewish person could be before Jesus came and provided a righteousness that was from God and not the law.

Romans 3:21 But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the Prophets bear witness to it-- 22 the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction: 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, 25 whom God put forward as a propitiation by his blood, to be received by faith. This was to show God's righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over former sins.

Luke 1:46 And Mary said, "My soul magnifies the Lord, 47 and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior,

Answer 7

The "woman", being deceived, was in the transgession.
Jesus called his mother "woman" x2: John 2:4 & 19:26.
Thereby he law imputed transgression unto Many twice.

Christ is the end of the law: Romans 10:4
Where no law, there no transgression: Romans 4:15

Jesus: was made under the law, and of woman.
Christ: is the end of the law, and of transgression.
Ye are not under the law(Jesus), but under grace(Christ).

E-life of Eternal salvation is "through Jesus --> Christ".

The GRACE of our Lord Jesus Christ with you all. Amen.

Answer 8

Yes, we are all sinless. No such thing as sin. So she got pregnant and blamed it on a god, so what? I think it was clever of her.

Answer 9

The answer is yes she is a sinner. Because God and see our true motives or read our hearts, Mary was sincere and was living a lifestyle in harmony with Gods will.

She is not to be worshiped but she is a great example for everyone in the way she was obedient to God and her husband.

Mary eventually died, as everyone does because we all have inherited sin from Adam and Eve. No getting around that.

Answer 10

No she was not sinless. The only person who ever was sinless was Jesus Christ himself. She had favor with God but that's it. She was human just like the rest of us capable of love and sin. No one is immune to sin.

Answer 11

VERY, VERY SINFUL

Do you remember that Mary offered two turtledoves in the Temple (Luke 2) according to the Law of Moses? This is found in Lev 12, whereby one dove was for BURNT offering and the other for SIN offering!! Yes, indeed SIN OFFERING.

Thus we may conclude that Mary by her own actions (in the offering of two turtledoves, one for burnt offering and one for sin offering) and the personal confession in her own words,…….My soul doth magnify the Lord, And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour (Luke 1:46-47); showed that she was indeed a SINNER, who needed her personal Saviour.


Furthermore, too many Caucasians are too proud to follow we men from the East. See the wise men that came from the East in Matt 2? They brought gifts....Mat 2:11 And when they were come into the house, they saw the young child with Mary His mother, and fell down, and worshipped Him: and when they had opened their treasures, they presented unto Him gifts; gold, and frankincense, and myrrh.

The wise men from the East came and worshipped 'HIM', they did not worship 'them', and they did not worship 'her'. The English is so basic.........O you proud stubborn Caucasians, learn from the wise men from the East......worship HIM, Jesus and HIM alone!! HalleluYAH! :-)


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