2007-11-19 15:54:02 · 10 answers · asked by blue 1 in Health ➔ Diseases & Conditions ➔ Other - Diseases
Well you can have what's called "pre-diabetes", in which case you are technically not diabetic. But generally speaking if you have diabetes you're diabetic and vice versa. No difference.
2007-11-19 15:57:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it is no different but the first phrasing, 'having diabetes' is supposed to show that the person is Not their disease and instead is a person (first) who has this diagnosis (diabetes). Similar to saying that someone who has cancer is not merely a 'cancer patient' but a human being with the disease. A person with a disability and not a 'disabled person'. Great question!
For more info on diabetes itself: American Diabetes Association -- http://www.diabetes.org
2007-11-19 16:36:01 · answer #2 · answered by jannsody 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
When you have Diabetes you are a Diabetic.
Then it just depends on which type of Diabetes you have/
2007-11-19 15:57:41 · answer #3 · answered by peachy_keen_jelly_beans 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A person who has diabetes is a diabetic.
2007-11-19 16:03:13 · answer #4 · answered by Country girl 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
There is no difference, but there are 2 types of diabetes. Type 1, where u have to take insulin, and type 2, where u don't have to take insulin (in most cases)
2007-11-19 15:59:54 · answer #5 · answered by egg_raid_on_mojo 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No, they are the same thing just being said differently. No difference.
2007-11-19 15:56:00 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
same word different tenses
2007-11-19 15:57:40 · answer #7 · answered by Dani 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No
2007-11-19 15:59:08 · answer #8 · answered by dude 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
nope, no difference.
2007-11-19 15:56:09 · answer #9 · answered by essentiallysolo 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Answer --> http://DiabetesGoGo.com/?LXiK
2016-03-23 07:03:31 · answer #10 · answered by Tamara 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋