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To get his way.

2007-11-19 04:26:28 · 20 answers · asked by carl 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

In Romans 3:28 he added the word "alone" that is not in the original Greek.

He did this to fit his own political agenda.

This is hard historical fact and you can check for youreslf.

2007-11-19 04:39:36 · update #1

The Reformation was based on the 3 principles:
1 Grace alone.
2 faith alone
3 Scripture alone.


Even Catholics believe no 1. The other ones have no basis in the bible and are totally manmade.

2007-11-19 04:42:07 · update #2

Catholics follow the ancient christian canon of the OT and not the canon decided by those who rejected Christ that's whywe havee a few more books in the OT.
But that was beside the question.

2007-11-19 04:46:37 · update #3

Modern Protestant translations have purged away this addition of Luther's because it's shameful. anyway that's how Luther started the reformation, by a fraud.

2007-11-19 04:52:45 · update #4

20 answers

"Tampered" with the Scripture?

You're completely ignorant of the process of translation, aren't you?

Here's an example . .

itellyouthistodayyouwill bewithmeinparadise.

Translate that without "tampering."

I tell you this, today you will be with me in Paradise.

or

I tell you this today, you will be with me in Paradise.

See the comma?

The significance between the differences impacts when someone goes to Paradise . . . immediately, or later.

Differences are where Theology begins.

Godspeed.

2007-11-19 04:34:13 · answer #1 · answered by jimmeisnerjr 6 · 0 1

Carl, I assume that Luther has answered to God for whether or not he tampered with Scripture in adding the word "alone". But the more serious and egregious tampering was yet to come -- many Bible versions since then have put far more doctrinally biased "spin" on Scripture than Luther would have dared.

The canon was closed in the fourth century. The Church didn't see the need to declare its canon infallible until, with the upheaval of the Reformation, the direction that Luther and others were taking as far as liberties with Scripture made it necessary. In a sense, the Church may have anticipated that what we see today would occur. The point that the Protestant canon predates Trent (by a hair) does not mean that pre-Trent the canon was still under debate; it was not, and had not been for many centuries.

2007-11-19 04:52:15 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

There does indeed seem to be evidence that he did this. Fortunately, I know of no church today (not even the Lutheran church) that follows the teachings of Martin Luther. The Lutheran Church's body of doctrine was formalized in the Book of Concord years after Luther's death, and significant portions of Luther's teachings were ignored or rejected. The most important parts of the Book of Concord--the Augsburg Confession and the Defense of the Augsburg Confession--Luther didn't even write.

To suggest that a single addition of the word "alone" in Romans was the basis of the Reformation is just silly. If you have any genuine interest in understanding the real basis of the Reformation, read the Augsburg Confession and the Defense of the Augsburg Confession.

2007-11-19 07:24:15 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous Lutheran 6 · 1 0

Luther did not tamper with the Scriptures.

However the Roman Catholic Church added seven books to the Canon at the Council of Trent in 1546.

History is extremely clear about that.

Rabbid Catholics have been lying about this as long as I've been on the Internet.

The article in the Encyclopedia Britanica which descibes the history of the Bible and what books are in it and how certain church councils passed resolutions about that is exactly what would be taught in Lutheran Seminaries to this day.

Yet the author of that article is a Catholic Priest. He's also a Ph.D. in Church History and a Th.D. in Theology. He's retired now, but his job at the time he wrote the article was President of a small fly by night college in Indiana.

The University of Notre Dame. Perhaps you've heard of it?

Pastor Art

2007-11-19 04:40:23 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

Hummm he took out the portions which had been ADDED TO the Hebrew scriptures by the Greek library at Alexandria and later left there by catholicism... To what are you referring?

...These passages are called "deuterocanonical," or "second canon." They were included in the Septuagint, Greek translation of the "Old Testament," but that was not a product of Judaism or Rome, but the Greek library at Alexandria, Egypt. It was finished 100+ years before the birth of Jesus and was in common use during his lifetime. The library wanted to document in Greek the histories and knowledge of the peoples conquered by Alexander and the other Greeks. They were not after a collection of "sacred books" and the content of the LXX or Septuagint was not determined by the Jews.

In any event, Rome does not enter the picture until hundreds of years later when the Latin Vulgate translation of the Bible was produced, which became the "official" Bible of the Roman church. Jerome based it primarily on the Greek scriptures, the LXX and the New Testament writings, so the additional writings in the LXX were also included in it.

The result is the "two Bibles" that we see today.

2007-11-19 04:38:31 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Everyone's tampered with the scriptures. It's been going on for centuries, all the way back to the release from Babylonian Exile, when a Jewish scribe, probably Ezra compiled many of the known traditions into the basis for the Bible.

2007-11-19 04:31:20 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 4 1

If you mean that he took out the parts of the Old Testament that the Jews didn't include in the Tanach but Rome left in the Septuagint translation, then yes he tampered with it.

2007-11-19 04:33:02 · answer #7 · answered by SDW 6 · 2 0

Technically he didn't tamper (change) with them, he merely said that certain books in the Bible were not Cannon (Scripture), hence why the Protestant Bible is shorter than the Catholic.

2007-11-19 04:33:56 · answer #8 · answered by Skalite 6 · 1 2

Religion is one of satan’s hidden dynasties. You see him working right from many Christian pulpits. The rapture doctrine, for example. Twisting scripture is one of satan’s MOS.( modus operandi); what did he try to do to Christ in the wilderness?

Edit:

Satan knows Scripture better than most Christians know it.

2007-11-19 04:40:29 · answer #9 · answered by David G 6 · 1 1

Lets see as the canon had not been "infallibly" determined by the Catholic church until the council of Trent, which was a response to the reformation. The canon had not officially been declared and thus he removed nothing from the official canon. And if really think about it since Protestants have followed that canon ever since then and Catholics declared their canon officially at Trent. Our canon pre-dates the Catholic one.

2007-11-19 04:32:23 · answer #10 · answered by Bible warrior 5 · 2 4

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