i mean, did god place an already fertalized egg in mary's womb? or did he deposit his seeds somewhere inside of her, letting nature take it's course? or did he just point his finger at her and "poof" she was pregnant?
what do you think?
even if you're not of this religion, if it had happened, how do you think it would have occured?
2007-11-19 01:38:12 · 29 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
father k & queen - oops, yes, i meant the virgin birth : )
2007-11-19 01:52:51 · update #1
He did her! You know He did her!
2007-11-19 15:55:58 · answer #1 · answered by Tea 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
To clarify, the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception refers to the conception of Mary by her parents, not to the conception of Jesus by Mary.
I am a Christian, but I do not believe in the Virgin Birth as a literal concept. Hebrews says Jesus was made fully man and participated in our nature. Additionally, Matthew gives Jesus' lineage through Joseph and says in verse 1:16 that Jesus was born "of" Joseph. Then the author of Matthew turns around and tells us in verse 1:18 that she conceived through the Holy Spirit. Conjunction junction, what's my function - obviously the author of Matthew was aggregating multiple sources - Mark, Q, and an unnamed third source - and just recorded these stories as they were without regard to a massive contradiction like this. Even if we excuse the geneolgy for the lack of understanding of DNA, one then wonders how inspired such an author could possibly have been?
Additionally, Mark and John don;t even mention a Virgin Birth. That seems like a pretty massive thing to leave out of your case that Jesus is God on earth, yes?
Also, in a sort of Golden Bough vein, mythology is full of gods impregnating women. In order to impregnate Alcmena, with the God-man Hercules assumed the likeness of her husband while he was away.
Although Alcmena had already conceived Hercules' twin brother, Iphicles, by her mortal husband. Which is another theory people advance - Jesus has a twin brother and it is "doubting" Thomas - Didymus Thomas means "the Twin." Another theory on the birth is that Jesus' father was actually a Roman Centurion named Pantera (search this on Yahoo for more info) and that mary's marriage essentially covered up her indiscretion or possibly a rape.
However, if all this is irrelevant and I wanted to come up with a theory of my own, I would take the ONLY verse that refers to the mechanics - Luke 1:35 in which the angel tells Mary the Holy Spirit will "overshadow" her - to be the answer. And to overshadow, in Greek episkiazo, is sort of a compund word made from the preposition "epi" that means to, upon, against and generally indicates movement and "skia" which means essence, image, shadow. So Christian theology has God in a creative cloud enveloping Mary's womb.
2007-11-19 10:10:05 · answer #2 · answered by ledbetter 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Well, the DNA had to come from somewhere.
So God had to create some DNA of his own which is weird since God is said to never have been human at any point in time so he had to create it outside of himself. Then he would have taken one of Mary's eggs and implant the DNA information in it to start the conception process.
Or he does have a human form and did it the old fashioned way.
Sounds like today whenever you hear of people talking about UFO experiences where they felt "probed" up in there or being impregnated by the aliens.
2007-11-19 10:01:20 · answer #3 · answered by The Mad Padishah 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The immaculate conception was ripped off from many other myths that went before. Take the Egyptian Horus for instance. See the link below for a comparison.
Both Jesus and Horus were allegedly born of a virgin mother.
2007-11-19 09:58:07 · answer #4 · answered by penster_x 4 · 1⤊ 2⤋
The Immaculate Conception is the heretical doctrine that the Virgin Mary was born without the taint of original sin. It is nothing at all like anything you are talking about. Therefore, your question is nonsense.
2007-11-19 09:51:14 · answer #5 · answered by Hoosier Daddy 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
The immaculate conception refers to the conception of MARY being born without the stain of original sin.
You are making the common mistake of confusing the "virgin birth" with the immaculate conception.
2007-11-19 09:46:25 · answer #6 · answered by queenthesbian 5 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Actually the immaculate conceptions refers to Mary's birth, not Jesus'.
Either way, I believe that if God were to stop thinking about us even for an instant we would disappear. So for a being with that much power to create or destroy, I think impregnating Mary would have been easier for Him than it has been for me to reply to this question.
2007-11-19 09:54:58 · answer #7 · answered by Thom 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
If the conception was indeed immaculate, I don't think God needed to do anything more than will it to happen.
2007-11-19 09:40:58 · answer #8 · answered by dutchboy_80 5 · 8⤊ 0⤋
The Immaculate Conception has NOTHING to do with Jesus' birth. It's a doctrine concerning MARY'S birth and being preserved as sinless.
2007-11-19 09:45:21 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 3⤋
I don't think it occurred anymore than any other myth. The gospels, at best, were written 33+ years after the birth and thus would have relied on word of mouth. Realistically, they where written 30 to 70 years after Jesus' death and there seems to be good evidence that two of them were copies of another document.
2007-11-19 09:43:42 · answer #10 · answered by Pirate AM™ 7 · 3⤊ 4⤋
This is why it's called a Mystery as we humans cannot comprehend it. As it is, it says the Spirit of the Lord descended upon her and she became pregnant.
2007-11-19 09:44:54 · answer #11 · answered by Aleria: United Year Of Faith 6 · 5⤊ 1⤋