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'There are times when I (as an asthist) argue with christian,
they, sometimes called me a fool by quoting this verse from bible; "The fool hath said in his heart, There is no God".

But when I quote Matthew 5:22
"Whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire".
they are dumbfolded.

Is it wise to call someone a fool. Do christians really understand Bible. Please comment.

2007-11-18 17:48:16 · 15 answers · asked by duraal1706 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

15 answers

Wow so many contridictions. you are right. can i come to your house every Sunday with my friends and stare at you for three hours?

2007-11-18 17:59:53 · answer #1 · answered by god of thunder 4 · 1 0

The word fool in Psalm 14:1; and 53:1 is the Hebrew word nabal which means lacking understanding; not having or showing the proper respect; and pride and disobedience to God; a vile person.

The word fool in Matthew 5:22 is the Greek word moros which we get our English word moron from.

As you can see there is a great difference, but either way it is still the Word of God and yes some of us actually do understand some of the bible and we study it diligently under the guidance of the author the Holy Spirit. I do hope this helps.

2007-11-18 18:22:15 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

I am glad at least you know the bible or some of it. I do not think quoting that verse means they are calling you a fool but by not believing you yourself make your self a fool, because there is so much evidence to know that God exists. Keep reading the bible and hopefully soon it may touch your heart and you will find rest for your soul. All the best. God bless

2007-11-18 18:02:39 · answer #3 · answered by Wally 6 · 0 1

First, for Jesus’ statement in Matthew 5:22 to contradict His actions recorded in other passages, the skeptic must prove that the term “fool,” as used in 5:22, is the same word used elsewhere. The word raca (Greek ΄ρακά), used earlier in Matthew 5:22, is a transliteration of the Aramaic term whose precise meaning is disputed. [Most likely, it means “an empty one who acts as a numskull” (Lenski, 1961, p. 219; cf. also Robertson, 1930, p. 44).] The exact meaning of the term “fool” (mōre, Greek Μωρέ) in this context also is debated. “Most scholars take it, as the ancient Syrian versions did, to men you fool” (Bauer, et. al., 1957, p. 533, emp. in orig.). Although some assume that mōre is the vocative of the Greek moros, in all likelihood,

just as “Raca” is a non-Greek word, so is the word mōre that Jesus used here. If so, then it is a word which to a Jewish ear meant “rebel (against God)” or “apostate”; it was the word which Moses in exasperation used to the disaffected Israelites in the wilderness of Zin…(Numbers 20:10). For these rash words, uttered under intense provocation, Moses was excluded from the Promised Land (Kaiser, et. al., 1996, p. 359).

Thus, it is quite possible that mōre (translated “[Y]ou fool” in Matthew 5:22) is not the normal Greek moros (fool) that Jesus applied to the Pharisees on other occasions (Matthew 23:17,19), but represents the Hebrew moreh (cf. Numbers 20:10).



so pretty much they mean different things

2007-11-18 18:31:30 · answer #4 · answered by SiLeNcEd for the unborn 2 · 0 0

1. The first passage ("the fool says in his heart...") has nothing to do with atheism.

2. The second passage does not universally condemn all uses of the word "fool," because it can be appropriate in some contexts.

3. Some Christians really understand their Bibles, and some don't.

2007-11-18 17:55:08 · answer #5 · answered by NONAME 7 · 3 0

Well, for those who indulge in calling you a fool, Matt. 5:22 applies---that speaks of judging your neighbor and having hatred toward another.
As for the use of fool in the first quote from Proverbs, I believe the Greek translation suggests the definition of fool to be more of "one who rebels."
Since God is the One Who weighs the thoughts of our hearts, it's in our best interest to allow Him to judge others.
Blessings.

2007-11-18 18:05:03 · answer #6 · answered by child of God 6 · 0 0

The Lord Himself has declared anyone who refuses to believe in Him to be a fool. Why would any body in their right mind, deny the existence of the Lord when he states that man is without excuse as the very creation everywhere testifies of His existence!

2007-11-18 18:32:53 · answer #7 · answered by mandbturner3699 5 · 1 0

This is Psalm 13, and they usually take it out of context. Psalm 13 talks about those who lie to themselves about what is right and wrong, and behave as if God does not exist, not those who have no knowledge of God.

Not a Christian - Norse Heathen - but I know the Bible. I don't mind Christians, but like their god Jesus, I don't like hypocrites who claim to be Christians.

2007-11-18 17:54:12 · answer #8 · answered by Robin Runesinger 5 · 0 0

That's Gods word and we can never escape that. Sorry if that's insulting to you. But I didn't write it I just read it.
But I have been called many insulting things for following Christ. Just read some of the comments here written about Christians by unbelievers.

2007-11-18 17:54:53 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

that verse is for the non beliver in matthew. s gospel 5. vs.22

2007-11-18 18:36:51 · answer #10 · answered by the_silverfoxx 7 · 0 0

certainly that regulate right into a huge concern of Darwin's. that is a robust ingredient that we've discovered a TON of transitional fossils by way of fact the booklet of that e book to boot as chanced on Genetics which one hundred% backs up his theory.

2016-11-12 01:38:06 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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