Like every woman does?
Without intercourse there is no baby, and you know it.
2007-11-18 15:09:30 · 19 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Given that Jesus was probably in fact the product of an, er, unsanctioned liaison (if he existed at all), one would presume that he was carried for the usual nine months, give or take a few days, like most babies. "Virgin birth" makes a good thing to tell mom, dad, and the fiance', though ;-)
2007-11-18 15:15:38 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋
enable see, John the Baptist replaced into six months older than Jesus. John actually leaped in his mom's womb while Mary walked in to flow to Elizabeth. (at present she replaced into six months alongside; which might recommend Mary replaced into merely pregnant.) So, if John is 6 months older then Jesus; sure, Jesus replaced into in the womb 9 months (provide or take 2 wks, because of the fact it extremely is the norm for first time pregnancies).
2016-10-01 03:37:55 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What do you know about a fetus inside the womb of his mother. ? Is it not carried inside within 9 months period?
It seems you are ignorant of the words of God in the bible and if ever you know it, what made you think that sexual intercourse is needed inorder that Jesus be born?
Have you read tht it is within the power of God? Why compare it to baby b orn from mankind? ARe you foolish?
2007-11-18 15:20:57 · answer #3 · answered by Jesus M 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary did Not Carry Jesus OUTSIDE the Womb... That I can assure you.
2007-11-18 15:20:26 · answer #4 · answered by conundrum 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Quite likely Mary carried Jesus for nine months.
"Without intercourse there is no baby, and you know it."
(1) This denies and rejects the fact of immaculate conception.
(2) In the present day, there are MANY babies born who are NOT the result of intercourse. Artificial insemination for just one example.
Your obvious bias is showing.
2007-11-18 15:15:32 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋
With intercourse, there would have been no VIRGIN Mary.
The Holy Spirit "overshadowed" Mary, and she "conceived of the Holy Spirit," and became pregnant, and had a baby whom she named Yeshua (Jesus).
2007-11-18 15:15:03 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
She did carry God the son in her womb for 9 months...the literal translation of the Greek term Theotokos is God-bearer or he one who gives birth to God; as for the issue of intercourse rember God is not limited to the laws of biology as he wrote them in the first place. God is beyond our logic.
2007-11-18 15:26:36 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes she did.
And God did not have sexual intercourse with her. She was a virgin.
Don't you think that God is all powerful?
Abrahams wife had Isaac when she was too old to have a child.
Is Mary's story really any different? (besides that it was Jesus, and God's son.)
2007-11-18 15:18:05 · answer #8 · answered by Scott the duckling 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, of course. The 9-month gestation period was part of God's creation.
2007-11-18 15:15:41 · answer #9 · answered by DrillMaster 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
As if God isn't able to effortlessly do what modern science has just recently figured out?
You're a hopeless skeptic, and you know it.
2007-11-18 20:48:00 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋