JW's/tHE Bible is CLEAR that Jesus was INFERIOR 2 the Father BOTH During his Human Xistence & HEAVENly Life ?

Question

& (HEAVENly) Life "Afterward;Then WHY Do those who Believe that Jesus is God Not (ALSO) Except the "Fact" that Jesus was (STILL) Inferior to the Father AFTER His Resurection to Heaven Since 1st Corinthians 11:3 says "The HEAD of Christ IS God" ! ! !

REMEMBER that 1st Corinthians was Written "Decades" AFTER Jesus Died and was Raised to (HEAVENly) Life !

SO; its VERY, VERY "Obvious" that Jesus Is (NOT) God ! ! !

Answer 1

1 Cor. 15:27, 28 RS: “‘God has put all things in subjection under his [Jesus’] feet.’ But when it says, ‘All things are put in subjection under him,’ it is plain that he is excepted who put all things under him. When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to him who put all things under him, that God may be everything to every one.”

The Hebrew word Shad·dai′ and the Greek word Pan·to·kra′tor are both translated “Almighty.” Both original-language words are repeatedly applied to Jehovah, the Father. (Ex. 6:3; Rev. 19:6) Neither expression is ever applied to either the Son or the holy spirit.

For Edge;Philippians 2:5, 6:

KJ reads: “Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God.” (Dy has the same wording. JB reads: “he did not cling to his equality with God.”) However, in NW the latter portion of that passage reads: “who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure [Greek, har·pag·mon′], namely, that he should be equal to God.” (RS, NE, TEV, NAB convey the same thought.)

Which thought agrees with the context? Verse 5 counsels Christians to imitate Christ in the matter here being discussed. Could they be urged to consider it “not robbery,” but their right, “to be equal with God”? Surely not! However, they can imitate one who “gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God.” (NW) (Compare Genesis 3:5.) Such a translation also agrees with Jesus Christ himself, who said: “The Father is greater than I.”—John 14:28.

The Expositor’s Greek Testament says: “We cannot find any passage where [har·pa′zo] or any of its derivatives [including har·pag·mon′] has the sense of ‘holding in possession,’ ‘retaining’. It seems invariably to mean ‘seize,’ ‘snatch violently’. Thus it is not permissible to glide from the true sense ‘grasp at’ into one which is totally different, ‘hold fast.’”—(Grand Rapids, Mich.; 1967), edited by W. Robertson Nicoll, Vol. III, pp. 436, 437.

Answer 2

You are right it is very very obvious that Jesus is not God.
IF it was true that Jesus was God, it should be clearly and consistently presented in the Bible. Why? Because, as the apostles affirmed, the Bible is God's revelation of himself to mankind. And since we need to know God to worship him acceptably, the Bible should be clear in telling us just who he is.

First-century believers accepted the Scriptures as the authentic revelation of God. It was the basis for their beliefs, the final authority. For example, when the apostle Paul preached to people in the city of Beroea, "they received the word with the greatest eagerness of mind, carefully examining the Scriptures daily as to whether these things were so."(Acts 17:10, 11)What did prominent men of God at that time use as their authority? Acts 17:2, 3 tells us: "According to Paul's custom . . . he reasoned with them from the Scriptures, explaining and proving by references [from the Scriptures]."

Jesus himself set the example in using the Scriptures as the basis for his teaching, repeatedly saying: "It is written." "He interpreted to them things pertaining to himself in all the Scriptures."-Matthew 4:4, 7; Luke 24:27.

Thus Jesus, Paul, and first-century believers used the Scriptures as the foundation for their teaching. They knew that "all Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness, that the man of God may be fully competent, completely equipped for every good work."-2 Timothy 3:16, 17; see also 1 Corinthians 4:6; 1 Thessalonians 2:13; 2 Peter 1:20, 21.

Since the Bible can 'set things straight,' it should clearly reveal information about a matter as fundamental as the Trinity is claimed to be. But do theologians and historians themselves say that it is clearly a Bible teaching?

Does the Bible clearly say that Jesus is God, If that were the Case then the Bible should say so,sometimes people use (John10:30)to prove that Jesus is God, But is that what it says there? No, In Fact, just a few verses later Jesus himself says:"I am God's son"verse36,and in the38th verse, he explains what being one with his Father actually means:I am in union with the Father and the Father is in union with me, in (John8:55)Jesus tells us that he observes God's word, does that make sense if he were God he wouldn't need to follow God's word because he would be God!Just like if Jesus were God he would know the day and hour of when the end of the system of things that we are living in is(Mathew24:36)


A PROTESTANT publication states: "The word Trinity is not found in the Bible . . . It did not find a place formally in the theology of the church till the 4th century." (The Illustrated Bible Dictionary) And a Catholic authority says that the Trinity "is not . . . directly and immediately [the] word of God."-New Catholic Encyclopedia.

The Catholic Encyclopedia also comments: "In Scripture there is as yet no single term by which the Three Divine Persons are denoted together. The word [tri'as] (of which the Latin trinitas is a translation) is first found in Theophilus of Antioch about A. D. 180. . . . Shortly afterwards it appears in its Latin form of trinitas in Tertullian."

However, this is no proof in itself that Tertullian taught the Trinity. The Catholic work Trinitas-A Theological Encyclopedia of the Holy Trinity, for example, notes that some of Tertullian's words were later used by others to describe the Trinity. Then it cautions: "But hasty conclusions cannot be drawn from usage, for he does not apply the words to Trinitarian theology."

Answer 3

i totaly agree with you. the bible makes it totaly clear that jesus was inferior to God because Jesus said so himself. please read this article found in a Watchtower of Jehovahs Witnesses regarding the matter, it is entitled;

“I and the Father Are One”

4; The churches often cite John 10:30 to try to support the Trinity, although no mention is made of any third person in that verse. There Jesus said: “I and the Father are one.” But did Jesus mean that he was God Almighty himself, just in a different form? No, that could not be since Jesus always said that he was God’s Son, inferior to Him and in subjection to Him. What, then, did Jesus mean at John 10:30?

5; Jesus meant that he was one in thought and purpose with his Father. This can be seen at John 17:21, 22, where Jesus prayed to God that his disciples “may all be one, just as you, Father, are in union with me and I am in union with you, that they also may be in union with us . . . that they may be one just as we are one.” Was Jesus praying that all his disciples would become one person? No, he was praying that they would be in unity, of the same mind and purpose, just as Jesus and God were.

Answer 4

In order for God to truly understand the life of a human, he needed to take the form of one. Hence Jesus. When God was now in human form he suffered the frailties of that form...hunger and thirst are just the tip of the iceberg. Once in human form he was able to experience everything that human existance had to offer. But he eventually needed to give up everything and return to heaven. The spiritual journey is a hard road for anyone to follow...even God himself.

Answer 5

False teaching: The bible says that they are equal in every way. Jesus is the everlasting Father. Isa.9:6. Amen!!!!!

Answer 6

What about these verses? They say Jesus is equal with God.

Philippians 2:5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
Phi 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Phi 2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Phi 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

Answer 7

It may be obvious to you, but it was debated for quite a while after the New Testament was written. Bringing it up again won't convince anyone, and the only question most people have is why you bother to bring it up at all.

Answer 8

Heavenly Eyes, I would like to ask you a question. Please answer if possible, here or e-mail.
"IS IT OF IMPORTANCE FOR US TO KNOW IF JESUS IS THE SON OF GOD OR GOD HIMSELF???"
What's the difference because it won't change his teachings or the reason why he came. It won't change anything about him and his love. He is our King, Lord, Saviour, Redeemer, the only way to the Father (Almighty God).

Heavenly Eyes, PLEASE don't ignore me! I really will appreciate your answer? Don't you want to teach me?

Answer 9

Dam straight! So nice to see that at least one follower of Christ actually paid attention to what Christ was talkin about.

Answer 10

The bible says many things that contradict each other.

And "Jesika" above me, is a perfect example of a christian cherry-picking a verse she likes only. But in reality she is unconciously pointing out two contradictory verses.