Was Jesus on a journey of self discovery?

Question

Matthew 15:21 to 28 tells the story of a non Jewish woman asking for help , Jesus appears to have changed his mind from not wanting to help her to helping her.
This goes against Jewish traditions cureing a gentile.
Was Jesus discovering his own beliefs ?

Averal - Sorry I fail to see how this is a wrong question.

Answer 1

(Matthew 15:21-28) Leaving there, Jesus now withdrew into the parts of Tyre and Si′don. 22 And, look! a Phoe·ni′cian woman from those regions came out and cried aloud, saying: “Have mercy on me, Lord, Son of David. My daughter is badly demonized.” 23 But he did not say a word in answer to her. So his disciples came up and began to request him: “Send her away; because she keeps crying out after us.” 24 In answer he said: “I was not sent forth to any but to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.” 25 When the woman came she began doing obeisance to him, saying: “Lord, help me!” 26 In answer he said: “It is not right to take the bread of the children and throw it to little dogs.” 27 She said: “Yes, Lord; but really the little dogs do eat of the crumbs falling from the table of their masters.” 28 Then Jesus said in reply to her: “O woman, great is your faith; let it happen to you as you wish.” And her daughter was healed from that hour on.

Jesus and his apostles were preaching only to the Jews. But this woman, in seeking to help her daughter, and being a Gentile worshipping other gods, actually changed her allegiance from those other gods to Jesus himseld.
She in fact,in that moment when she asked Jesus for help, became a follower of Jesus, a CHRISTIAN.
She achieved herself the exact same outcome that jesus was seeking from the Jews...to change their ways from 1500 years of tradition to what Jesus was teaching.

Jesus had a pre-human existence in heaven alongside his Father, Jehovah God. his Father made him aware of it when he was baptised.
Proverbs 8; 22-31
So there was never a need for Jesus to " Know himself"

Answer 2

Not Jesus discovering them so much as Matthew pointing them out. Matthew is the only one of the four Gospels that is written primarily to a Jewish audience.

Matthew was pointing this fact out to Jewish converts, the same as Peter's vision in Acts 9 was intended to point out that Jesus' message was for all people.

EDIT:
Realized I made an extraordinary claim, so I should back it up.

Matthew quotes the OT more than the rest of the Gospels--pointing to Jewish history and prophecy regarding the Messiah.

Mark explains many customs, traditions, etc... about Judaism, so as to help its readers understand the significance of much of the story. Mark was believed to be written for Gentile believers in Rome.

Luke is specifically addressed to "Most Excellent Theophilus," likely a Roman official.

John was an elder in the church of Ephesus when he wrote his gospel, and intended it to circulate around the churches of Asia Minor (aka Turkey). These are the seven churches mentioned in the first few chapters of Revelation, also--John traveled between these churches often at this time in his life.

Answer 3

Wrong question.

It was Matthew's intent to show that the gospel is not only for Jews but also for Gentiles (non-Jews).