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There will (ALWAYS) be Debate as to whether John 1:1 Should Read "a god" OR "God" !

BUT Doesn't John 1:18 which Reads "NO Man has SEEN God at (ANY) time" Really Clarify that the New World's Translation of John 1:1 is (WITHOUT DOUBT) the "Most" Accurate Translation of John 1:1 ???

All "TRUE" Christians Know that Jesus was Seen MANY Times by Human Beings ! So; if Jesus was Seen MANY Times by Humans; then the ONLY "Accurate" Translation of John 1:1 (HAS) to Be "a god" !

Really; all ANYONE has to do to Know What "Should Be" the Correct Rendering of John 1:1 Is to (JUST) Read the "Entire" First Chapter of John !

AND 4 that Matter; the (WHOLE) Book of John; and 4 that Matter the WHOLE Bible ! ! !

2007-11-17 19:05:18 · 14 answers · asked by . 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

14 answers

I do not have a problem with this. The KJV uses LORD God, and here the name of God was most likely meant to be because the NWT had his name about or near 7000 times. So I am not uncomfortable with thinking LORD God, meaning God and his name, or Lord God meaning his son and our Savior and the one his Father gave power over heaven and earth Matt.28:18;
The word is power Heb.4:12; John 10:34-36; He called them gods to whom the word of God came. We have that word. God is LORD God, and his son will reign 1000 years. Satan has been in this world that ends as god for over 6000 years.

WILL ANY ONE BE EXAMINING THE BIBLE TIME LINE FOR CORRECTIONS?

2007-11-17 19:20:50 · answer #1 · answered by jeni 7 · 0 0

So, the KJV isn't the main suitable translation. what's the manuscript information for the insertion of "Jehovah" in the Christian Greek Scriptures? 0, probable? Even Jason BeDuhn, oft-quoted by utilising Watchtowerites of their professional-NWT argumentation, admits that the Divine call does not belong there. If God will curse people who've messed around with merely one e book, what is going to His judgement be upon people who've inserted "Jehovah" the place it does not belong, some 237 cases? the place's the historic information for the alleged removal of "Jehovah" from the NT, because of the fact easily this way of vast operation does not have long previous omitted and unrecorded? wager what? there is none. yet greater hypothesis on the component to Arian enormous Brother. with regard to the Alpha and the Omega, Revelation 22:13 needless to say shows that the Lord Jesus utilized the identify TO HIMSELF, regardless of the Watchtower's fairly much embarrasing attempt to describe this away, on the rate of the flow of the passage. who's "coming without postpone" in verse 12, which right this moment precedes verse 13? who's "coming without postpone" in verse 20? You do the mathematics.

2016-09-30 23:50:46 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

You ignored my last response.

Some of the best and oldest manuscripts of John 1:18 translate along the lines, "No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father's side, he has made him known" (ESV). John 1:18 confirms Jesus divinity, rather than debunking it.

Your logic is faulty, moreover. The "God" John is saying no one saw is the Father. It is Jesus, the express image of God, they saw. This, of course, does not negate Jesus' divinity; it simply means no one has seen the divine Father, rather than the divine son. As Paul says, "For now we see in a mirror dimly, but then face to face. Now I know in part; then I shall know fully, even as I have been fully known" (1Co 13:12).

By the way, even if John 1:1 should read "a god," it still means Jesus is divine, but it also negates the fundamentals of monotheism. Was John a monotheist, polytheist, or henotheist? You must answer that for yourself, but most scholars would agree John was a monotheist rethought around Jesus, and one of the New Testament authors to focus the most on Jesus' divinity.

2007-11-17 19:21:14 · answer #3 · answered by enarchay 2 · 2 1

You are out of your league here.......Jesus is one person of the Trinity, God's Son. God's Son came to earth in the form of a human, so that we might know the Father God and know how to be redeemed. God, the Father, is another matter completely. God the Father cannot be looked upon by humans in their earthly form and you can see that each time He came to a human ( such as Moses and the burning bush), He had to do something to keep them safe, (like using the bush as a covering). He tells them to look away. Or He uses some other way to approach humans. In the Holy Temple He was behind the curtain. He is God Jehovah and no human in their earthly form has looked upon God directly. They would be destroyed or at the least blinded is the inferance. Humans do not have the capacity in the natural state to understand all the ways of God, but this He has revealed that we might know Who we are dealing with. He's not just a person and His power goes beyond anything we can comprehend.......He is the ultimate Power of the universe and beyond. When we are changed (in death or the rapture), then we will be able to stand in His glorious presence and worship Him face to face.

2007-11-17 19:30:06 · answer #4 · answered by Joyful Noise 5 · 0 2

And this, ladies and gentlemen, is what makes Jehovah's Witnesses a CULT!!

The only "debate" is between Jehovah's Witnesses and the Christian community. And last I checked the KJV translators had some serious credentials compared to the chumps who invented the NWT.

EDIT:
And yes, I used the word "Invented" on purpose.

2007-11-17 19:09:45 · answer #5 · answered by SDW 6 · 4 1

oooooookkkaaaayyyy!!!!!!!! That was an interesting question! Look bruh-bruh, I'm not gonna sit here and chastise you or "brow beat" you wit the word, nor will I argue the word with you. But by saying that Jesus is "a god" and not God in the flesh, is saying that there is more than one God. It also leads to the suggestion that Jesus is less than / not equivelant to-God!

Let me give you a lil example of the triune God.

God is GOD and he always will be, period!!!

The holy spirit is always noted as an "action" or "movement" of God. (mighty rushing wind, cloud by day fire by night,etc..)

Jesus is the word of God; or the WORDS of God. Jesus was the manefestation of truth. God could only "speak" to prophets and kings in those days, but Jesus was able to speak to everyone; and with the help of Gods "action"(the holyspirit) Jesus was able to EXPRESS his love in visible detail.

The information I just gave you are 3 "snap shots" of the same person!
You have the first picture of God just standing there doing nothing, saying nothing, he's just revealing he exists.

The second picture is God running, jumping, catching, saving etc.............you know......God in action.

The third picture is God speaking.

So with that info, are they pictures of 3 different people??? NNNNOOOOO!!!! It's different pictures of the same person doing different things!
GODBLESSSSSSS!!!!!!!
(Let every man who has an ear let him hear.)

2007-11-17 20:06:51 · answer #6 · answered by explicittrell 1 · 0 2

DECAF!!!!!!!

I'd be more curious to know what your version of the Bible says about 1 John 5:8

Mine says "And there are three that give testimony on earth: the spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three are one."

2007-11-17 19:08:21 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

Debate? There isn't a debate.
First year Greek students know that the definite article is always omitted from the predicate nominative.

2007-11-17 19:11:19 · answer #8 · answered by NONAME 7 · 4 1

there is indeed a major crux in this passage; but it is not the specious one of wordage that you are referring to.

#1 learn greek and read the text.

#2 come back when you know what you are talking about.

2007-11-17 19:10:36 · answer #9 · answered by synopsis 7 · 4 1

whatever it says in the King James Version (I don't have my Bible near by) is the correct translation.

2007-11-17 19:11:06 · answer #10 · answered by canadadance 1 · 1 2

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