Isn't tHE "New World Translation" Published by Jehovah's CHRISTIAN Witnesses (MORE) Accurate "AFTER ALL" ! ! ?

Question

There will (ALWAYS) be Debate as to whether John 1:1 Should Read "a god" OR "God" !

BUT Doesn't John 1:18 which Reads "NO Man has SEEN God at (ANY) time" Really Clarify that the New World's Translation of John 1:1 is (WITHOUT DOUBT) the "Most" Accurate Translation of John 1:1 ???

All "TRUE" Christians Know that Jesus was Seen MANY Times by Human Beings ! So; if Jesus was Seen MANY Times by Humans; then the ONLY "Accurate" Translation of John 1:1 (HAS) to Be "a God" !

Really; all ANYONE has to do to Know What "Should Be" the Correct Rendering of John 1:1 Is (JUST) Read the "Entire" First Chapter of John ??? !!!!!

Answer 1

Yes.

Several bibles translate John 1:1 in a manner compatible with the phrase "the Word was a god". The bible plainly teaches that Jesus is a god (John 1:1; Isaiah 9:6; John 1:18). This biblical concept does not trouble any Christian, whether he be trinitarian or nontrinitarian. Yet, for centuries, trinitarians have tended to reject any alternate translation of John 1:1.

Trinitarians must recognize that it was three or four hundred years after Christ's impalement that a minority of self-described "Christians" decided that Jesus was the only god, God Almighty (Jehovah). By the time the King James Version translated John 1:1 into English as "the Word was God", the year was 1611. How interesting it would be to see a translation from Greek (which contained no indefinite article "a") into English (with its indefinite articles "a", "an") performed by early Christians, perhaps the children or grandchildren of those who walked with the apostles!

We do have such a translation, but into the Coptic language, which uses indefinite articles as English does. How do the Coptic manuscripts word John 1:1?

"...and the Word was a God."
http://copticjohn.com/
http://jehovah.to/exe/translation/coptic.pdf
http://depts.washington.edu/cartah/text_archive/coptic/coptjohn.shtml


The bible makes perfect sense when it is being read honestly. John 1:1 is perfectly harmonious with the rest of the bible, which teaches plainly that Jesus Christ the Son is a distinct person from Jehovah God the Father. The Scriptures teach that the Almighty created Jesus as His firstborn son.

(Colossians 1:15) the firstborn of all creation

(Mark 10:18) Jesus said to him: 'Why do you call me good? Nobody is good, except one, God.

(Revelation 3:14) the Amen says, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God

(Philippians 2:5-6) Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God's form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God

(John 8:42) Neither have I come of my own initiative at all, but that One sent me forth

(John 12:49) I have not spoken out of my own impulse, but the Father himself who sent me has given me a commandment as to what to tell and what to speak

(John 14:28) I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am

(1 Corinthians 15:28) But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him

(Matthew 20:23) this sitting down at my right hand and at my left is not mine to give, but it belongs to those for whom it has been prepared by my Father

(1 Corinthians 11:3) I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; ...in turn the head of the Christ is God

(John 20:17) I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.

(Deuteronomy 6:4) Jehovah our God is one Jehovah

(1 Corinthians 8:4-6) There is no God but one. For even though there are those who are called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him

Thanks again for an opportunity to share what the bible actually says about the distinct persons of Jesus Christ the Son and Jehovah God the Father!

Learn more!
http://watchtower.org/e/ti/index.htm?article=article_05.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/20050422/
http://watchtower.org/e/20020515/
http://watchtower.org/e/rq/index.htm?article=article_03.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/lmn/index.htm?article=article_04.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/pr/index.htm?article=article_04.htm


Incidentally, the bible quite explicitly calls Jesus a "god"; human judges, angels, and even Satan are also referred to as "gods" in the bible (see below). Yet Jehovah is "the one true God" in the sense that He has no rival among any of these. Jesus the Son is clearly no rival to God the Father!

(Psalm 86:8,10) There is none like you among the gods, O Jehovah... You are God, you alone.

(1 Corinthians 8:4-6) There is no God but one. For even though there are those who are called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him

(Exodus 22:20) One who sacrifices to any gods but Jehovah alone is to be devoted to destruction.


The bible speaks of honoring Christ Jesus and doing obeisance to him, but only Jehovah the Father merits worshipful "exclusive devotion".

(Exodus 20:2,5) I am Jehovah your God... I Jehovah your God am a God exacting exclusive devotion

(Philippians 2:5,6) Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God



The bible does not use the term "god" only in reference to Almighty Jehovah.

(1 Corinthians 8:5) there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth

Jesus as "a god": (John 1:1; Isaiah 9:6; John 1:18)
Angels as 'gods': (Psalm 82:1)
Satan as 'a god': (2 Corinthians 4:4)

Human judges as "gods": (Psalm 82:6-8) “I myself have said, ‘You are gods, And all of you are sons of the Most High. Surely you will die just as men do... Do rise up, O God, do judge the earth

Answer 2

WAS 2520 BEING USED BEFORE THE NEW WORLD TRANSLATION?

IN THE BIBLES IT IS NOT JUST LORD God [ THE GOD, but HIS TIME TABLE ALSO and more ], and Lord, as Jesus is David's Lord and Jesus has his LORD, God and Father, John 20:17; KJV Matt. 22: 42-44; or 2Cor.4:3,4; the god of this world that will end, and he is not in the image of God that created, or John 10:34-36; those Jesus called gods and gods as Deut 10:17; and Matt.22:37-40; The LORD God Jesus said to love with all our strength, as his first creation. Jesus is his son, at God's right hand, until his power began.

All bibles have the same time line as well, but those who study it each get it different, for those that get 4004 at 2007 C. E. is year 6011, for those who get 4026 at 2007 C. E. is year 6033, for those that get 4049 at 2007 C. E.
is year 6056.
No matter what bible I use the 4004, 4026 and 4049 to Christ is not as important as what it is at Daniel, because at Daniel the most important thing [ amid a number of important things ], is 2520 years in the future, so from Daniel what total does that give in time? At the 2520 years, Satan is cast down to end last days, to have a short time [ in the time of the end now way beyond 2520 ], in the time of the end.
Now as to the bible there must be two or three witnesses to give that short time for Satan in the time of the end, [ but saying,"millions now living will never die," and expecting that to be repeated ], also there is no way to know how much time Adam was in day six. To know full time is to know that. Why would God not give his people that was being careful all they needed to be careful with. He always did.

No matter which bible I use [ and I have examined many ], I want to see the turn out of this and how any learn it is not correct and then see how it is corrected. So it is not the bible and I hear negative comments on KJV, it is a challenge. But the truth is here. No matter the bible, it is correct facts that count. The one way mistakes are made is to be off on the bible time.

At year 3460, Daniel was 2613 years ago, [ not 3419, and he is at 391st year after death of Solomon ],
Then the 2520 years [ amid all the other time it gives so vital ], then the short time for Satan in the time of the end at two different places, if I did not find this in the KJV, I would not continue as a bible student. A student given all the time possible, will not know the day and hour. To many ways to examine bible time to be sure of it beyond a doubt.

HAS THE BIBLE TIME BEEN EXAMINED FROM NEW WORLD TRANSLATION

Answer 3

While I have never seen, much less read this particular Bible, John 1:1 does read God, and not "A god" when all aspects of the chapter and other verses else where that deal with the topic say, God. Sorry, just 1 God, who manifests Himself as He chooses.

Answer 4

Does it matter how accurate the "translation" is? Even the closest things we have to the original documents are inconsistent with reality. The point of analyzing the documents should be to understand the message the author wanted to convey, like why was the idol made in the fire at the base of the mountain a golden calf? Why not a golden camel, or a silver leopard? Why, specifically, a golden calf?

Read "Who Wrote The Bible" by Dr. Friedman for the exciting answer to those questions, and more!

Answer 5

Jesus was a "god" not God Almighty.

But yes, the New World Translation is the most accurate of any Bible. It is serious business when you decide, when you make the important decision to worship Jehovah God with your whole heart and mind; the text you read must be accurate because the charge you make to yourself is the most important in the world: Dedicating your life to serving God.

Great point and remember "god" ----there are many so-called "gods", but there is only one "God" Almighty.

Thanks and God Bless

Answer 6

Ummm, nope.

This is a better translation of John 1:1-3, (The Literal-Analytical version)

Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word [or, the Expression of [divine] Logic], and the Word was with [or, in communion with] God, and the Word was God [or, was as to His essence God].
Joh 1:2 This One was in the beginning with God.
Joh 1:3 All [things] came to be through Him, and without Him not even one thing came to be which has come to be.


(1) Joh 1:18 - No man hath seen God at any time,.... That is, God the Father, whose voice was never heard, nor his shape seen by angels or men; for though Jacob, Moses, the elders of Israel, Manoah, and his wife, are said to see God, and Job expected to see him with his bodily eyes, and the saints will see him as he is, in which will lie their great happiness; yet all seems to be understood of the second person, who frequently appeared to the Old Testament saints, in an human form, and will be seen by the saints in heaven, in his real human nature; or of God in and by him: for the essence of God is invisible, and not to be seen with the eyes of the body; nor indeed with the eyes of the understanding, so as to comprehend it; nor immediately, but through, and by certain means: God is seen in the works of creation and providence, in the promises, and in his ordinances; but above all, in Christ the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person: this may chiefly intend here, man's not knowing any thing of God in a spiritual and saving way, but in and by Christ;


Joh 10:30 I and the Father are One!
Joh 10:31 Then again the Jews took up stones, that they might stone Him.

Why did they want to stone Him? Because He claimed to be deity.

Joh 14:7 If you had known Me, you would have known My Father also; and from now on you do know Him, and have seen Him.
Joh 14:8 And Philip said to Him, Lord, show us the Father, and it is enough for us.
Joh 14:9 Jesus said to him, Am I so long a time with you, and you have not known Me, Philip? The one seeing Me has seen the Father! And how do you say, Show us the Father?

Again, Jesus equating Himself with the Father as deity.

Christ is the logos, the Word, the expression of God the Father to man.

Answer 7

The Joseph Smith Translation adds this:
"And no man hath seen God at any time, except he hath borne record of the Son; for except it is through him no man can be saved."

Answer 8

God, Lord, Church etc, are not in the original Hebrew. They are Greek words.
Find a copy of "The Scriptures", which is a literal translation.

Answer 9

One does not test the accuracy of a verse translation by invoking the "logic" of a different verse. One does it by comparing the translation with the original verse. There is no indefinite article in koine Greek, but referring to Christ as "a" god/God is incompatible with monotheism, regardless of what any other verse says.

Answer 10

You sound frightened into tunnel vision. LOOK. Some of us find truth in life and all of its wonders. The world's religions each reveal tidbits. ONE IS BETTER? This is the very thinking that CAUSES the chaos we have all been struggling with since the birth of religion. STOP IT, FOR THE LOVE OF GOD....STOP IT!!!!!!!

Answer 11

Actually if you read it in the original language, you see that the New World Translation is not acurate at all.