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Alma 7:10

And behold, he shall be born of Mary, at Jerusalem which is the land of our forefathers, she being a virgin, a precious and chosen vessel, who shall be overshadowed and conceive by the power of the Holy Ghost, and bring forth a son, yea, even the Son of God.


So...God had sex with mary in that scripture?

(PS, no it's not saying the City OF Jerusalem, it's saying the land of Jerusalem, so don't even bring it up)

2007-11-17 16:09:21 · 19 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

19 answers

No he did not. One day, people will answer for the lies that they spread about us.

2007-11-18 15:17:07 · answer #1 · answered by Princess Ninja 7 · 0 0

No. We don't believe that at all!! That is a common misconception. And thank you once again to all the people who say they know what I believe better then I do. Great to know you are in my body and can know for sure. ;)

It says in that scripture that she was overshadowed by the HOLY GHOST!!! Overshadowed doesn't mean sex. Sorry to say. If you look in the dictionary, the definition is to cast a shadow over. Does that sound like sex to you? We don't know for sure how it happened, but since God knows more about science, and the process of life, I'm sure He could figure out a way without sex being involved.

*EDIT**
Take my answer with a grain of salt. I don't mean it to sound rude of offensive to anyone.

2007-11-18 13:09:29 · answer #2 · answered by odd duck 6 · 0 1

That what, when , how, and etc of this is not known or understood. All I know is the who and the why. The who: God the Eternal Father, and Mary, through some divine process, resulted in the conception of our Lord Jesus Christ. The why: so that the atonement of our sins could be accomplished by the divine mission and atonement of the Savior Jesus Christ.

And a response to a previous answer... Adam and Eve did not live in Jackson, Mississippi.

2007-11-18 12:24:53 · answer #3 · answered by Kerry 7 · 1 2

First, we don't comprehend the mechanics of ways the thought got here approximately. 2nd, no depend if God has assorted different halves is unknown. it rather is attainable regardless of the shown fact that it is not for us to rigidity approximately such issues. What place does Mary have in the father's affections? all of us comprehend that she replaced right into a chosen vessel to bear the Son of God on earth. third, see the reply to the 1st question. all of us comprehend that the Holy Ghost got here to visit her and that the capability of the father overshadowed her as stated in the recent testomony. She would desire to not bear the presence of the father without the Holy Ghost first raising her spirit to His airplane. How He then fertilized her egg is for Him to correctly known and us to not difficulty approximately. Did He use the traditional approach we are attentive to? according to probability. He does, in spite of everything, have a physique of flesh and bones, albeit glorified and celestialized.

2016-09-30 23:06:34 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

I guess you could say that Mary had sex with the jewish god, that is how women get pregnant. But, if you chose to think that a woman, especially one who supposedly was a virgin, could be impregnated by some spirit, then anything is possible and you just swallowed it hook and sinker. Common sense is uncommon in this matter.

2007-11-17 20:38:11 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

It is not Mormon doctrine that God had intercourse with Mary. Mormons would not interpret that scripture to mean that God had intercourse with Mary. (After all, that's not what the scripture says!) Most of the scandalous doctrines anti-Mormons claim we believe are crafted lies to paint us in a poor light.

To learn more about Mormons, visit my site at http://www.allaboutmormons.com/brief_critique_anti-mormon_propaganda.php

2007-11-17 17:41:48 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

No, Jesus was conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit.

THanks, non-Mormons, for letting all of us "Mormons" know what we believe.

Most "Mormon" families I know have 2 or 3 kids. Is that too many?

2007-11-17 16:18:04 · answer #7 · answered by colebolegooglygooglyhammerhead 6 · 6 0

So Mary Is a vessel, In your presentation that was acquired by your religion?
And by considering Mary-female-only a (vessel), But not the MOTHER, Of God profit, The asker Is saying that any woman could have been jesses mother, Since she was only a vessel.
AND I AGREE WITH 2 OF THE ANSWERS ABOVE : LYNN C , AND EXPRESS KID.

BY THE WAY WE ALL KNOW BY KNOW YOUR NO PRIEST-ASKER-, BUT IF THAT'S WHAT YOUR ASPIRATING TO BE, JUST SAY SO, AND YOU CAN STILL OPEN DIALOGS.
BUT I THINK YOU SHOULD READ (LYNN C) ANSWER.

2007-11-17 17:16:00 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

Yes they do. God the Father was the father of Mary as a spiritual child, and then in his body he had sex with her. Brigham Young also believed that God the Father was Adam, and so was the literal ancestor of her physical body as well but modern LDS-Mormons don't accept this, only fundamentalists do.
Do you have any reference at all for the phrase 'land of Jerusalem' meaning territory that includes Bethlehem? othre than this passage, that is?

2007-11-17 16:17:38 · answer #9 · answered by rebecca v d liep 4 · 2 5

God can´t be anyones father, since God doesn´t have sex.

2007-11-17 16:14:13 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 3

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