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As I recall, Mexico became a nation in 1821, 30 years AFTER the end of the American Revolutionary War.

What are they TEACHING these kids, nowadays?

....

2007-11-16 15:14:10 · 14 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Immigration

Jeez! I sound like my mom and dad always did. "nowadays"? [what have I become?]

2007-11-16 15:15:15 · update #1

Amanda: The line in the desert is invisible, true. As is the one between Guatemala and Mexico. The only difference is the consequences of crossing. That one further south could earn you some warm copper.

2007-11-16 15:30:09 · update #2

L Party: Please show proof that it was Mexico in the 1600's. Not Spain. We know the Euro's were here but that seems to be the point of frustration for the illegals. When was Mexico first in the Southwest?

2007-11-16 15:43:37 · update #3

Chili_Rod: I, too, am a mix of tribal and European. Most U.S. citizens are. Moot point. And if they're only retaking what's theirs, they'd take the land as it was, not welfare, schools, etc. And, they'd best come up with a good explanation for being in Chicago, NY and Canada, since Mexico NEVER quite stretched there (for that long span of 25 years from 1822 to 1847)

2007-11-16 15:51:04 · update #4

14 answers

Well, I guess that the over simplification and blatant ommission of facts by some has led to some mass misunderstandings. Just like Native Americans are all referred to as if they were a single group or nation, instead of scores of individual tribes, with all sorts of different relationships with each other, customs, traditions, etc.

2007-11-16 15:21:45 · answer #1 · answered by steddy voter 6 · 5 1

The American Indians were the first Immigrants to this continent.

The modern day Mexican culture is a mix of French, Spanish, Mayan, Incan, etc......

Perhaps part of the American Southwest used to be part of Mexico. But here is a fact: No part of The United States of America belongs to Mexico.

2007-11-17 01:33:52 · answer #2 · answered by NSA 6 · 3 2

Well Mexicans and the Spanish were already living in the southwest since the 1600's and before that.
That's why we have cities with spanish names like Los Angeles, San Francisco, San Diego, San Antonio among many others.

2007-11-16 23:36:16 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2 4

Does it really matter at this time who was were first? This is The United States now. No one is going to hand it over to Mexicans, Indians, or anyone else. We should enforce our laws, and protect our boarders like every other country in the world does. It's our right, as well as our duty.

2007-11-16 23:23:34 · answer #4 · answered by Glenn T 3 · 6 2

When the southwest was signed over to the U.S. (or stolen) depending on who you ask, many Mexicans remained in those territory's and many were chased back into Mexico by racist white settlers, some were even lynched in Texas by the violent Texas Rangers.
But Mexican roots were still left everywhere in California, Texas and the southwest. Mexicans have been here longer than YOUR ancestors. All they are doing now is migrating back, just like Jews migrated back to Israel after getting kicked out. That's called karma.

2007-11-16 23:40:38 · answer #5 · answered by J. 2 · 1 6

1st native American Indians,the true 1st peoples here. throw in afew wondering : vikings, Spaniards, then us. just remember: mexico/ south America has been conquered by all of the others,so define what is a 'mexican'?

2007-11-16 23:25:08 · answer #6 · answered by seaching4rastartt 3 · 3 2

Know one knows who was first, but it doesn't matter because it wasn't the United States then. We created it the way it is, built it up, not the Mexicans. To imply all that is here is theirs is crazy and just plain ignorant.

2007-11-16 23:40:55 · answer #7 · answered by Kyle 1 · 6 2

Not Mexicans exactly. But Hispanics have been here longer that anyone except the Native Americans. We wont count the Vikings who came here 300 years before Columbus, because their settlements did not survive.

2007-11-16 23:23:45 · answer #8 · answered by hironymus 7 · 1 5

I would guess they are talking about the AZTEC and MAYAN civilizations?

The Natives that were there shared in the rape and torture from great Cristobal Colon (Christopher Columbus). The imaginary line in the desert was not there then, and, the Spaniards raped and pillaged as they saw fit....

The only thing dividing the Natives of Mexico and our Native Americans is that invisible desert line.

2007-11-16 23:26:01 · answer #9 · answered by Amanda h 5 · 4 6

It wasn't 'here' then, either. And noone is trying to go south to the country it was.

2007-11-16 23:17:40 · answer #10 · answered by DAR 7 · 5 1

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