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why is joesph-marys husband-listed in the genealogy of jesus?

i always wonder about this and asked this question early today and didnt get any answer-thought i try again-thanks in advance for any answers or thoughts-smile and enjoy the night

2007-11-16 14:42:10 · 12 answers · asked by lazaruslong138 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

cant be born through an adoptive father-doesnt work that way

2007-11-16 14:53:02 · update #1

12 answers

I've never quite gotten that either. If Joseph isn't Jesus' father (and given his plans to put Mary away, as the New Testament states, it seems clear that he's not), he shouldn't be in the family tree at all. Even if he adopted Jesus, his house lineage wouldn't carry over to the child, so it's kind of pointless. And if he WAS the father, then Christianity is pretty much down the tubes.

Contrary to the belief of the person above me, you CANNOT pass house lineage to an adopted child. Can you see that even in today's world - if Britain's Prince Charles had no child, for instance, and attempted to pass his potential crown down to an ADOPTED child????? C'mon, folks, get real. It didn't happen then either.

And look - you've got about six different answers here - which means the Christians are making it up as they go. And they wonder why they need a foundation in Jewish writings???

2007-11-16 14:48:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 3

Joseph is listed in order to show that Jesus' ancestry (ok "born" was a poor choice of words before - updated) was in the prophesied lineage (the Davidic line of kings) BOTH through his mother, Mary AND through his adoptive father, Joseph. This gave Jesus both the LEGAL right to the throne (thru Joseph) and the SPIRITUAL right to the throne (thru Mary).


Note to the person below me: maybe today, maybe in England - but this was not the case in Jesus day. The adoption of Jesus by Joseph made Jesus his son, his firstborn legally. Also, remember, that society at the time did not recognize that Jesus was born of God. Society at the time viewed Joseph as his father.

2nd update: HA! You are surprised that Christians differ in their answers??? Have you noticed ALL the different denominations of Christianity? But actually, there is a bit of agreement here between several answerers. And even if there wasn't - doesn't make all the answers wrong.

2007-11-16 22:47:53 · answer #2 · answered by eliz_esc 6 · 4 1

If you read the genealogy listed on Matthew and compare it to the one listed in Luke, they do not match. Although both mention Joseph, because of the tradition of tracking the genealogy through males, the one listed in Luke belongs to Mary.

2007-11-16 22:55:29 · answer #3 · answered by Aeon Enigma 4 · 2 0

Women were not recorded in geneologies then. No, that doesn't make it make sense, but that's the reason.


Addendum:
To those claiming that both Mary and Joseph were of the lineage of David, there is ZERO evidence to back that up. The gospel geneologies mentioned Joseph's line, not Mary's. The Genealogies converge at a single point then split off again. This WOULD NOT HAPPEN if they were of the same lineage! rather, it would converge and remain consistent.

2007-11-16 22:48:15 · answer #4 · answered by Dashes 6 · 2 2

because he's his father. The purpose of a geneological account is to show the history of a family.

Concerning old testament law, if you adopted a child, it is just as if you had the child yourself.

Edit: The purpose of this geneological account was to show the family blood line through whom the promise of the messiah would come. In a family, if there was an inheritance being passed down such as a crown and a kingdom, or in this case, the promise of the messiah, it would be passed down from one household to the next. From the father (never the mother unless the father died) to whatever son he chooses. Then the next choice of sons if the first could not recieve it, and so on until there were no more sons. Then it would go to the first choice of females of the family and if none of those could recieve, then the choicest of slaves and that was only if there was absolutely no one else of family blood living.

Now because God is the head of the household of his people (those who believe), he is the one who chose which son would recieve the inheritance. He chose Christ. The lineage of christ obviously began with adam, came down to david, then to the house of Joseph, through his virgin wife mary. Technically she was still his "fiance" at the time.

Point is, Joseph was the head of his household, and the last male through the lineage of david, through whom the promise would come. After Joseph was Christ, who "shall be born of a virgin."

2007-11-16 22:46:07 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 3 2

Because the Messiah was to come from the linage of David.
Both Mary and Joseph are from the linage of David.

Isaiah 11


The Branch From Jesse
1 A shoot will come up from the stump of Jesse;
from his roots a Branch will bear fruit.

2 The Spirit of the LORD will rest on him—
the Spirit of wisdom and of understanding,
the Spirit of counsel and of power,
the Spirit of knowledge and of the fear of the LORD -

3 and he will delight in the fear of the LORD.
He will not judge by what he sees with his eyes,
or decide by what he hears with his ears;

4 but with righteousness he will judge the needy,
with justice he will give decisions for the poor of the earth.
He will strike the earth with the rod of his mouth;
with the breath of his lips he will slay the wicked.

5 Righteousness will be his belt
and faithfulness the sash around his waist.

6 The wolf will live with the lamb,
the leopard will lie down with the goat,
the calf and the lion and the yearling [a] together;
and a little child will lead them.

7 The cow will feed with the bear,
their young will lie down together,
and the lion will eat straw like the ox.

8 The infant will play near the hole of the cobra,
and the young child put his hand into the viper's nest.

9 They will neither harm nor destroy
on all my holy mountain,
for the earth will be full of the knowledge of the LORD
as the waters cover the sea.

10 In that day the Root of Jesse will stand as a banner for the peoples; the nations will rally to him, and his place of rest will be glorious.


Note: Jesse is David's Father.



Jeremiah 23:5
"The days are coming," declares the LORD, "when I will raise up to David [ Or up from David's line ] a righteous Branch, a King who will reign wisely and do what is just and right in the land.



Jeremiah 33:15
" 'In those days and at that time I will make a righteous Branch sprout from David's line; he will do what is just and right in the land.

2007-11-16 22:47:53 · answer #6 · answered by Spoken4 5 · 3 2

Because God the father promised Abraham that Abraham will always have a king in his linage of descendants. God did not break that promise. Jesus, although is God, He was manifested into the flesh came from the descendants of Abraham (from King David's family) as God suggested and Joseph was too. As the Bible proclaims Jesus is the last Adam (to correct humans' error, from the first Adam), the King of kings and Lord of lords. But He (Jesus) was Son of God spiritually and was not yet glorified as King until He died. God indeed used the family of Joseph to bring God the Son to life (incarnate). Hope that helps, God bless you and help you understand.

2007-11-16 22:58:43 · answer #7 · answered by bEiNg DiScIpLiNeD 5 · 1 0

The promised seed of David was to come from David; obviously. But it had to come through a good blood line and through a good spiritual line. David's sons were not very godly. The geneology in Matthew is according to the flesh (Matthew 1:1) the geneology in Luke is according to the Spirit, this is made clear when it links it to God. The name passed from man to man in Matthew, likewise the godliness passed from God to man in Luke. I hope that makes sense. Luke 3 and Matthew 1

2007-11-16 22:49:09 · answer #8 · answered by (SL) 3 · 2 0

According to jewish tradition, the genealogical line is matriarchal. It is incorrect to include Joseph in Jesus' lineage. Allegedly, Jesus was a jew, born of a jewess.

2007-11-16 23:16:29 · answer #9 · answered by CC 7 · 1 1

Because the Messiah was to come from the linage of David. Back then women were not recorded in geneologies.

2007-11-16 22:52:08 · answer #10 · answered by Bob 2 · 0 1

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