Men serve as overseers, ministerial servants. In the discussion of “gifts in men” given by Christ to the congregation, there is no mention of women. The words “apostles,” “prophets,” “evangelizers,” “shepherds,” and “teachers” are all in the masculine gender. (Ephesians 4:8, 11)
Ephesians 4:11 by the American Translation: “And he has given us some men as apostles, some as prophets, some as missionaries, some as pastors and teachers.” (Psalms 68:18)
In full accord with this, when the apostle Paul wrote to Timothy about the qualifications for the service positions of “overseers”, who were also “older men”, and of “ministerial servants” in the congregation, he specifically states that they must be men and, if married, ‘the husband of one wife.’ No discussion by any of the apostles discusses any office of “deaconess”. (1Timothy 3:1-13; Titus 1:5-9; compare Acts 20:17, 28; Phlipians 1:1)
Although Phoebe is mentioned (Romans 16:1) as a “minister”, it is evident that she was not an appointed female ministerial servant in the congregation, because the Scriptures make no provision for such. The apostle did not tell the congregation to receive instructions from her but, rather, to receive her well and to ‘assist her in any matter where she might need them.’ (Romans 16:2)
Paul’s reference to her as a minister evidently has something to do with her activity in the spreading of the good news, and he was speaking of Phoebe as a female minister who was associated with the congregation in Cenchreae. (Compare Acyd 2:17, 18)
2007-11-16 07:24:21
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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I believe he did. He told the woman at the well to go tell the good news. That would be an apostle. I think the patriarchal church refuses to acknowledge that for obvious reasons. So shameful.
Edit: Then ask yourself how she wasn't an apostle, but Paul who never met Jesus, but claimed to have had a vision of him is the favored apostle of the day? Meanwhile, Paul happens to slam women in religion at every turn.
2007-11-16 08:04:11
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Jesus had close relationships with many women, but in Roman-controlled Palestine at that time, women were socially not allowed to roam freely, and those that did were looked at as harlots or possessed or both. The Jews would not have listened to women teachers anyway. He also chose working people instead of educated teachers of the Law. The same question could be asked about why Jesus did not call any Romans. He used the most effective tools for the job. That does not mean he did not respect and highly value women. To the contrary, he shocked his contemporaries by treating women as humans in a time and place that women were just above cattle on the social ladder.
2007-11-16 07:22:46
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answer #3
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answered by Jonathan 3
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I believe that He did and evidence was destroyed by the male run Catholic church. I'm absolutely positive that Mary Magdelene was anApostle, why else try to discredit her by saying she was a prostitute when there's no scriptural bases for saying it? All that's said about her is that Jesus drove several demons out of her; that doesn't equal prostitute to me! And who were all of the other women mentioned by name in the gospels? I've heard it explained that they were parts of people's families and those who came along to cook and take care of the men, but that doesn't make any sense. This was a group that was there to work, they didn't have the luxury of being taken care of, so they wouldn't have brought people along just to serve them! I believe that Jesus was an equal opportunity Savior, it was the men who followed behind Him that were not!
2007-11-16 07:25:37
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answer #4
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answered by bainaashanti 6
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Hello,
Jesus also had his human life to live and was living according to the standards and status quo of his time in Ist century Palestine. The role of women was not based on equality in the work force and synagogues as it was 2000 years later so appointing women in that position in that time would have created a lot of problems and totally disrupt his ministry and message.
As I have said on other posts, one cannot use late 20th century thinking, philosophy and social reforms to judge the minds of people living in 1st century Palestine, tenth century England or 16th century Europe.
Cheers,
Michael Kelly
2007-11-16 07:21:51
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answer #5
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answered by Michael Kelly 5
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What about Mary Magdalene? He "appointed" her to go tell the others He had arisen, making her the first person appointed to spread the Good News.
2007-11-16 07:17:53
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answer #6
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answered by wanda3s48 7
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Sexism
2007-11-16 07:17:50
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answer #7
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answered by Reptilia 4
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Why did only 12 [men] walk on the moon,
Elizabeth I was the best leader ever :)
Men didn't have anything to do with the birth of Jesus so what
2007-11-16 07:14:45
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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It is sexism. Look at history. It's been bred by women, but carved by men. Jesus was no better, and being an Athiest to me he is just a man who was a really good speaker.
2007-11-16 07:19:47
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answer #9
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answered by Ryan P 3
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Because he was training people to take care of the Christian congregation after he left, and women do not get to do that.
2007-11-16 07:15:38
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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