In Christianity people sometimes use the word "Lord" to refer to God or Jesus.
Is this a carryover from a time in human history when people thought their political rulers were divine?
Since the name Baal, in an ancient Middlle Eastern religion means "Lord," is the use of the name "Lord" a carryover?
2007-11-16 06:43:55 · 9 answers · asked by Pascha 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The above answers about YHWH (the Tetragrammaton) and Ha Shem are right for the Old Testament [Tanakh] usage - LORD is always capitalized in the Old Testament to signify YHWH, the Name. However, the New Testament use of Lord is quite different.
In the NT, the Greek word is "kyrios" which can mean ruler, master - it is the one to whom we belong, the one we respecta nd revere, and so on. This is especially important for the Gospel of John, which is all about the coming of the Kingdom of Heaven. And yes, it is very much a statement about what the world would look like if God's will ruled the day. It is also a statement about the identity of Christ as the Moshiac, the Messiah. The Moshiac is expected to be the Jew who will lead Israel to world domination. In Acts 1 before the Ascension you can see the Apostles still believe Jesus is the literal Lord in a political sense as well.
And, yes, the metaphor applies to an earthly ruler. The Catechism of the Catholic Church explicitly says the model for the church is a monarchy and the Pope is the monarch and his ruling is final. They view this model of hierarchy as ordained by God for exactly this kind of reason.
2007-11-16 07:05:22 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is a reverent term Christians use to say that their God is also Lord or Ruler of their life and all they own. I don't know when it began, but it is a most reverant term and not to be confused with Baal at all. As every knee will bow and every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord.
Phillipians 2:9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:
10 That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;
11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
2007-11-16 07:52:49 · answer #2 · answered by Bobby B 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
For the Jews it was always the word Lord , since they were not allowed to utter Gods name. The later Jewish sects , such as Christianity , used all sorts of things , God , Jesus , The Holy Spirit ,etc etc .
2007-11-16 06:56:53 · answer #3 · answered by londonpeter2003 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
this may well be a good question and one that Bible readers have additionally asked approximately. The term "We" interior the Bible and interior the Quran is the royal "We" - as an occasion while the king says, "We decree right here assertion, and so on." or, "we at the instant are not amused." It does not point out plural; quite it reflects the utmost place interior the language. English, Persian, Hebrew, Arabic and a number of of languages furnish for using "We" for the royal parent. that's efficient to observe the comparable dignity is given to the guy being spoken to in English. we are saying to somebody, "you're my pal." however the guy is just one individual status there. Why did we are saying "ARE" quite of "IS"? The noun "you" is singular and could as a result be linked with a novel verb for the state of being, yet we are saying, "are." the comparable is authentic for the speaker while concerning himself or herself. we are saying, "i'm" and it is likewise interior the royal plural, quite of announcing, "I is."
2016-09-29 09:01:35 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The first time it is used in scripts is
2 1 Thus the heavens and the earth were finished, and all the host of them. 2 And on the seventh day GOD ended his work which he had made; and he rested on the seventh day from all his work which he had made. 3 And GOD blessed the seventh day, and sanctified it: because that in it he had rested from all his work which GOD created and made. 4 These [are] the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the
Lord GOD made the earth and the heavens,
2007-11-16 06:49:24 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Jews would not speak the name YHWH, so they said "Lord" when reading the scriptures and the word YHWH popped up.
This tradition was carried into the time of Christ. Even Jesus never says YHWH.
2007-11-16 06:47:52 · answer #6 · answered by Catholic Crusader 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe God used it first since He knows who He is.
2007-11-16 06:50:39 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
...you need to be able to read and understand the Hebrew text's of the Tanakh... "Adonai" = Lord (Ha Shem)
2007-11-16 06:52:17 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
it's in the bible
2007-11-16 06:48:33 · answer #9 · answered by Nels 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋