English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

clearly it was a conspiracy to drug and conceive a child but why did she say it was of righteousness to do something without consent or even without prayer and waiting on God for the answer. See Genesis 19
http://scriptures.lds.org/en/gen/19/24a

2007-11-16 06:43:51 · 4 answers · asked by Priestcalling 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

4 answers

Because when faith drives your reason, you can come up with all sorts of conclusions.

2007-11-16 06:47:41 · answer #1 · answered by ɹɐǝɟsuɐs Blessed Cheese Maker 7 · 0 0

You only have the writer's word about what happened. Chances are, Lot took advantage of his own daughters and blamed them for it. Women took the blame for everything in that culture. It was Lot's fault not his daughters.

2007-11-16 14:48:51 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

God made sure her offspring's (and her sister's) decendents perished at the hands of his Chosen people, so I think it is safe to say that they were pwnd.

2007-11-16 14:49:24 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Straight incest.

You ever tried doing it under the influence of a sedative..??

2007-11-16 14:49:53 · answer #4 · answered by Terry M 5 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers