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Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, If a woman have conceived seed, and born a MALE child: then she shall be unclean SEVEN DAYS; according to the days of the separation for her infirmity shall she be unclean. And in the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised. And she shall then continue in the blood of her purifying THIRTY THREE days; she shall touch no hallowed thing, nor come into the sanctuary, until the days of her purifying be fulfilled. But if she bear a FEMALE child, then she shall be unclean TWO WEEKS, as in her separation: and she shall continue in the blood of her purifying SIXTY SIX days. (From the NIV Bible, Leviticus 12:2-5)"
First of all the Bible Is extremely unscientific , and second thing it is degrading women by saying this , If bible is the word of god how is it that it is making false claims, there is isnt a single doctor in the world who can support this statement, even christian doctors deny this.It is a proven fact that either a male or a female the period where the women is unclean is the same.

2007-11-15 17:32:10 · 16 answers · asked by nocturnal_monk 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

For ppl who say the quran is wrong and the bible is right , watch the Debate -The bible and the quran in the light of modern science between Dr.Zakir Naik and Dr.William campbell, and the quran hasnt been proven wrong anywhere as far as established science is concerned, i know the msg of the bible is noble but there if god wrote it, it cant be wrong can it, the above verses have already been proven by science so there is no chance of u turns, as far as miracles are concerned if there are miracles in the quran , there are miracles in the bible too,the shooting star thing is just a relegious perspective of we look at the shooting star, if u r gonna question that u have to question the existance of satan too, can u scientifically prove satan exists, i dont think so.

2007-11-15 18:04:11 · update #1

Jason C: i quoted from the new international version

2007-11-15 18:14:50 · update #2

The real chuch historian: The doctor is William campbell he has an MD. in medical science and has been a practising medical doctor for 20 yrs of more, and has a phd in writing the book, the quran and bible in the light of history and science.He didnt adamently deny it but said he doesnt have a good answer to that
and to all the ppl who say it is not scientifically unclean but relegiously unclean: Why is the women unclean double the period of time when a female child is born than a male child, why is it , is a female child a curse? or is it a lower being.

2007-11-15 18:21:00 · update #3

16 answers

religion is male dominated, instead of reveling in my luck, i choose not to believe.

2007-11-15 17:38:04 · answer #1 · answered by silentnightbodomnight93 2 · 0 1

I chuckled when I read the statement "First of all the Bible is extremely unscientific," because in case you didn't know, 8 days after a child is born the child has the highest percentage of blood clotting agents then it will have in it's entire life. It is literally the best and safest day in your whole life to be cut. Maybe God knew what he was doing when he said "Wait until the 8th day do circumcise a male child." Today's science knows this to be true so how did people back then know? Because God knew.

Here's the direct quote:

On the eighth day, the amount of prothrombin present actually is elevated above one-hundred percent of normal—and is the only day in the male’s life in which this will be the case under normal conditions. If surgery is to be performed, day eight is the perfect day to do it.

2007-11-16 05:15:35 · answer #2 · answered by Kuulio 3 · 1 0

Why this is addresses to Christians is strange. Christians are not under the Law Covenant, and the question you pose is totally about ceremonial cleanliness of the Law Covenant.

It has nothing to do with the Christian teachings.

That the Law Covenant called something clean or unclean needed no scientific basis -- all it needed was a religious basis. And that is what that question is about.

The question of bodily fluids and such as in the case of childbirth was a means of raising the Israelites awareness of the need to be clean and holy before God. Thus certain things were said to be clean, others to be unclean.

Again, these usually had no scientific basis of any kind but was God's reminder to the Israelites of the need to be holy.

2007-11-16 02:01:19 · answer #3 · answered by Fuzzy 7 · 0 0

Do not worry, science will catch up with the Bible some day.

All of the references to blood in the Bible give a clue that it has properties that we have not discovered medically or scientifically yet.

If the Bible says something is unclean, then believe it, it is unclean whether you agree or not.

The phrase, "Their blood cries up from the ground" is one that truly interests me. There is something genuine in this statement, but we do not know exactly what it means yet.

By the way, a woman menstruates for a long time after having a baby. This is easily observable, and coincides with the teachings here. It takes time for the woman's body to get back to normal after having a baby.

Your post is extremely biased and unscientific. You gave no references, and no specific quotes from Christian doctors.

One other little 'scientific' & historical fact. While the masses of Europe were wallering like pigs in their own filth during the Middle Ages, the Jewish communities were havens of safety and cleanliness. They followed the Mosaic Laws concerning cleanliness.

But to you history and facts prove nothing do they. You just want another chance to take a pot-shot at #1. God & His book.

2007-11-16 01:41:50 · answer #4 · answered by realchurchhistorian 4 · 3 2

The Old Testament law was not meant to be taken as literal scientific fact. Laws are not always based on science. Want proof? Well, I live in Texas . . . where the legislature in the spring of 2007, overruled an executive order by the Governor that would have required all young girls to get a vaccine against HPV, the virus that can cause cervical cancer, along with all other school attendance required shots.

At one time there was a law in Texas that you couldn't buy pantyhose on Sunday. Now there was no scientific reason for that, but that was the law. That law has since changed, by the way.

Also, there is absolutely no scientific reason for parts of Texas being "dry" when it comes to retail sales of alcohol beverages, but those places are indeed dry and people either drive elsewhere to buy their alcoholic beverages or pay to join "private clubs" in restaurants in order to legally order a glass of wine/mug of beer/cocktail to drink with their meal.

2007-11-16 17:50:39 · answer #5 · answered by An Episcopalian+Anglican 3 · 0 0

You mean Jews, don't you?

Let me try to make this clear, that is the Law of Moses. There isn't any Law of Moses now with the New Covenant. The Bible states this :

Hebrews 8:13
By calling this covenant "new," he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and aging will soon disappear.

So go through ALL of the Law of Moses, and apply that to what you showed. There is no Law of Moses left except to convince us of sin. That's why the Bible says that Jesus came to set the captives free, there is no one saved by the Law of Moses. But only through Jesus Christ.

Hebrews 8:8 ( and Jeremiah 31:31 - 32 )
But God found fault with the people and said : "The time is coming, declares the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah.

2007-11-16 01:47:17 · answer #6 · answered by Christian Sinner 7 · 2 0

Halley's Handbook of the Bible says it's about helping to the balance of the sexes since men had to fight wars and were subject to greater fatalities than woman.

Also remember the Bible is thousands of years old. To do more research on this topic I would love to see how other cultures at that time handled childbirth of sexes also. Were there other cultures that did the same thing or not?

You are picking on one topic but how much research have you done on this yourself? But then of course I wold only have to verify the sources of your info.

2007-11-16 01:52:07 · answer #7 · answered by Uncle Remus 54 7 · 0 0

There is a big difference in OLD testament and NEW testament. Jesus Christ changed a lot of GODs original law. I would start there. You cant just attack certain versus from the Bible without understanding the scripture from the entire book.

The OLD testament is the New Testament concealed,

And the NEW testament is the Old Testament Revealed.

2007-11-16 01:44:10 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

"Unclean" is not a medical term, people were superstitious back then. Women who had just given birth or were on their period were considered unworthy to touch sacred things, leave their houses or even answer the door! This law was repealed when Jesus came and changed many of the old Jewish laws and customs because they were unnecessary.

2007-11-16 01:48:25 · answer #9 · answered by Misty & Bri 1 · 2 0

Salaaam................U christain ppl will nvr beleive nething.....u jus say it means this or tht........N u say rad the new teatament naaa.hw *** u chng things frm the old teastament to ne testament...............
What follows is a brief sampling of the numerous errors in the Bible. There are hundreds more.



1.How many generations were there between the Babylonian captivity and Jesus? In Matthew 1, it says there were fourteen, but only thirteen are listed.

2. Was Enoch a member of the sixth generation after Adam (as indicated in Genesis 5 and Luke 3) or of “the seventh after Adam��? as it states in the epistle of Jude?

3. Did the Last Supper take place on the evening of Passover (Matthew 26:17-20; Mark 14:12-17; Luke 22:7-14), with the crucifixion occuring the next day and therefore “not on the feast day��? (Matthew 26:5; Mark 14:2), or did it take place on the evening before Passover as John reports, so the crucifixion took place on the day of Passover -- that is, on the feast day (compare John 13:1-2; 18:39; 19:14, 31, 42)?

4. Was the potter’s field purchased by Judas before his death (Acts 1:15-19) or by the priests after his death (Matthew 27:3-10)?

5. Is pi, the ratio of the circumference to the diameter of a circle, equal to 3.0, as is implied by I Kings 7:23 and II Chronicles 4:2, or is it equal to about 3.1416, as all mathematicians agree?

6. Was Sisera killed while he was sleeping on the ground (Judges 4:21) or did he fall to the ground and die when he was struck with a hammer (Judges 5:26-27)?

7. Why does Matthew say that Jesus came to live in Nazareth “that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene��? (Matthew 3:23)? There is no such prophecy anywhere in the Old Testament.

[A couple of sidelights: In Judges 13:5, there is a prophecy that Samson will be a Nazarite, but being a Nazarite had nothing to do with where one lived. It involved certain ascetic practices, like abstinence from wine or other grape products, not cutting one’s hair or beard, and normally was undertaken by an oath. Since Jesus drank wine, he could not have been a Nazarite, at least not throughout his ministry. And there is, besides, no reason for supposing that this prophecy was meant to apply to anyone but Samson.

There are references in the New Testament both to Jesus coming from the town of Nazareth and also to his being a “Nazorean��? – which many translations render as “Nazarene.��? But in fact, they shouldn’t be confused. They have different roots in Hebrew and Aramaic. (In Hebrew – Aramaic is similar on this – there are two different letters transliterated as “z,��? zayin [ז] and tzadde [צ]. “Nazareth��? uses tzadde and “Nazorean��? uses zayin.1) Outside the New Testament, there is no evidence that the town of Nazareth even existed in first-century Palestine and actually some evidence that it did not.2

However, there is evidence, inside and outside of the New Testament, of a Jewish sectarian group called “Nazoreans.��? Most likely, Jesus was a Nazorean, and the gospels were doctored by people in later times who didn’t understand what Nazoreans were, but were familiar with the later town of Nazareth. Understandably, they confused the two and thought Nazoreans were residents of Nazareth. Whoever authored Matthew compounded the confusion with a fuzzy memory of a prophecy about someone (Samson) being a Nazarite (not a Nazorean or a Nazarene).]

8. Is God all-knowing (I John 3:20) or does he sometimes have to find out things (Genesis 18:20-22)?

9. Is the earth motionless (Psalms 93:1; 104:5)?




10. Is there any mountaintop on a round earth from which one can see “all the kingdoms of the world��? (Matthew 4:8)? (If this is not to be taken literally, why does the devil take Jesus up “an exceeding high mountain��? at all?)




11. At the time of the triumphal entry into Jerusalem, did Jesus ride on the backs of two animals? – “And the disciples went, and did as Jesus commanded them, and brought the *** and the colt, and put on them their clothes, and they set him thereon.��? (Matthew 21:6-7, emphasis added)




Maybe Jesus was very fat! Actually, the explanation is not hard to find. Right before this, a prophecy from Zechariah (9:9) is quoted: “Behold thy King cometh unto thee, meek, and sitting upon an ***, and upon a colt the foal of an ***.��? (v. 5) At least four factors appear to be at work here. First, the author of Matthew was not an eye-witness. He didn’t see Jesus perched on the backs of two animals at the same time. Second, he thought he had to say that Jesus was riding both of them because of a woodenly literal interpretation of an Old Testament prophecy. Third, if he was Jewish at all, he was almost certainly a Gentile convert, for, had he been raised in the traditions of Israel, he would have recognized the passage from Zechariah as a familiar parallel construction of Hebrew poetry, not a literal assertion that one person would be riding two animals. Finally, and of more general importance, is the evident fact that whoever authored Matthew was willing to adjust the way he reported events in order to make them accord more closely with faith-based preconceptions of how they ‘must’ have been.

Who can ans these question fom the bible??????

1 give one single verse from the bible where jesus is an unequivocal statement ever said,"I am God."

2 where does the bible claim,"Bible is he word of God ."

3 give Jesus Christs one unequivocal statement where christ said "Holy Spirit is the 3 person of the trinity."
4 give Jesus Christs one unequivocal statement where christ said"I am the 2nd person of trinity."
5 give Jesus Christs one unequivocal statement where christ said" Father is the frst person of trinity."

2007-11-16 05:53:11 · answer #10 · answered by donthekingkhan 1 · 2 0

The Bible isn't the only medically unscientific book.

The Qur'an actually says the skeleton forms BEFORE muscle, when it is now know that bones form FROM muscle tissue.

The Qur'an also says shooting stars are stars which suddenly become missles which attack evil spirits!

Looks like the Bible can't be used as a science manual, and neither can the Qur'an.

;)

2007-11-16 01:40:19 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

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