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if Mary is the mother and God is the father, and God is spirit not flesh, and the spirit of God got Mary pregnant, where did jesus get his genes? i mean, if God is spirit, then he coudnt have put in any genes. and if the only genes came from Mary, then her baby would have been a perfect clone of her. so why then is Jesus a guy? Now, dont say Jesus didnt have genes... thats straight out creepy. anyways for a human to exist, he or she HAS to have GENES.

2007-11-15 15:03:29 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

15 answers

Mary is Jesus mother but not the mother of GOD. it is different.

His genes are from Mary and God, simple.

God can do all things.

Do you expect to understand all of God's ways? We are but man!

2007-11-16 13:53:58 · answer #1 · answered by K in Him 6 · 0 0

SinnFul,
Yes, God is the Father of Jesus, and Mary was highly favored, and chosen by Him to be the mother. God is spirit, and Mary was human, and "also created by God". If you read the Bible, in the book of Genesis, 2:7 And the Lord God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul. Now, God doesn't need to use a human, or genes, when the spirit of God moves, and He speaks something into existence it is simply His creation! and we are just that, created in His image... BLESSED!!!
In His Love,
Blessin

2007-11-16 00:28:13 · answer #2 · answered by Blessin 1 · 1 0

He got the second set of genes from God. Obviously, if God could make our entire universe in 6 days, do you really think it would not be possible for Him to create a set of genes so Jesus could have a proper human body?

Wanna know something cool? A baby gets its blood type from its father. The father's genetic contribution determines the baby's blood type. So since Jesus didn't have an earthly father....what blood type would He have? Cool huh?

2007-11-15 23:10:16 · answer #3 · answered by Blue Eyed Christian 7 · 2 1

It's deeper than that my friend. The Bible specifically states that Jesus WAS God manifested in the flesh. Therefore, he had male genes not female, like Mary, his mother.

2007-11-15 23:11:37 · answer #4 · answered by paula r 7 · 2 0

God the Son existed before the world was formed.
God the Father is almighty He is able to do anything He wants with what is His.
U must also remember God created man what set of genes did He use then?
We were created by Him and the world belongs to Him.

2007-11-15 23:11:15 · answer #5 · answered by Sissy C 3 · 1 1

You are right, God is a Spirit, but the Word, which was in the beginning and was with God and was God, is God's body. God translated His body into the womb of Mary (dna & all), and whoever placed the seed in the womb is the child's father.

John 4:24, Jesus said, "God is a Spirit".

Colossians 1:15, speaking of the Son, "Who is he image of the INVISIBLE God".

Colossians 2:9, speaking of Christ, "For IN HIM dwelleth ALL the fulness of the Godhead bodily".

2nd Corinthians 5:19, "To wit, that GOD WAS IN CHRIST, reconciling the world unto himself".

Zechariah 12:10, God is speaking, "And I WILL pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of GRACE and of supplications::: and they shall look upon ME whom they have pierced".

When Philip asked Jesus to show them the Father, Jesus replied in John 14:9, "Have I been so long time with you, and hast thou not known ME, Philip?" (10) "...the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works".

God is a Spirit, and is everywhere present and nowhere absent, and Jesus is his body, who sets upon the throne.

2007-11-16 18:55:43 · answer #6 · answered by 4KNOWN 2 · 0 0

Did the imperfection of the virgin girl Mary have a negative effect on the conception of Jesus?

Concerning “the birth of Jesus,” the inspired record says: “During the time his mother Mary was promised in marriage to Joseph, she was found to be pregnant by holy spirit before they were united.” (Matthew 1:18) Indeed, God’s holy spirit played a pivotal role in Mary’s pregnancy.

What, though, about Mary? Did her egg cell, or ovum, contribute at all toward her pregnancy? In view of God’s promises made to Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Judah, and King David—Mary’s forefathers—the child born would have to be their genuine descendant. (Genesis 22:18; 26:24; 28:10-14; 49:10; 2 Samuel 7:16) How else could the child born to Mary be a rightful heir of those divine promises? He would have to be her actual son.—Luke 3:23-34.

Jehovah’s angel had appeared to the virgin girl Mary, saying: “Have no fear, Mary, for you have found favor with God; and, look! you will conceive in your womb and give birth to a son, and you are to call his name Jesus.” (Luke 1:30, 31) Conception requires that an egg become fertile. Apparently, Jehovah God caused an ovum in Mary’s womb to become fertile, accomplishing this by the transferal of the life of his only-begotten Son from the spirit realm to earth.—Galatians 4:4.

Could a child conceived in this way by an imperfect woman be perfect and free from sin in his physical organism? How do the laws of heredity work when there is a union of perfection with imperfection? Remember that holy spirit was employed in transferring the perfect life force of God’s Son and causing the conception. This canceled out any imperfection existing in Mary’s ovum, thereby producing a genetic pattern that was perfect from its start.

In any case, we can be certain that the operation of God’s holy spirit at that time guaranteed the success of God’s purpose. The angel Gabriel had explained to Mary: “Holy spirit will come upon you, and power of the Most High will overshadow you. For that reason also what is born will be called holy, God’s Son.” (Luke 1:35) Yes, God’s holy spirit formed, as it were, a protective wall so that no imperfection or hurtful force could blemish the developing embryo from conception on.

Clearly, Jesus owed his perfect human life to his heavenly Father, not to any man. Jehovah “prepared a body” for him, and Jesus—from conception onward—was truly “undefiled, separated from the sinners.”—Hebrews 7:26; 10:5.

2007-11-15 23:11:55 · answer #7 · answered by Mr_Dees_65 4 · 1 1

God came to take upon himself a body with blood so as to shed His blood for sinners. The sin-tainted blood inherited from Adam would not qualify Him as the sinless Saviour, so a body was prepared with blood produced by the Father, and placed into the womb of a virgin by the blessed Holy Spirit. Christ eventually went to the cross and shed His blood. Because He was the God-man shedding untainted holy blood, mankind may have eternal life by receiving this sacrifice.

2007-11-15 23:21:09 · answer #8 · answered by Virginia B (John 16:33) 7 · 1 0

The key of David.

Rev 3:7 And to the angel of the church in Philadelphia write; These things saith he that is holy, he that is true, he that hath the key of David, he that openeth, and no man shutteth; and shutteth, and no man openeth;

Isa 11:1 And there shall come forth a rod out of the stem of Jesse, and a Branch shall grow out of his roots:

Isa 11:10 And in that day there shall be a root of Jesse, which shall stand for an ensign of the people; to it shall the Gentiles seek: and his rest shall be glorious.

2007-11-15 23:08:37 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

WHAT IS IMPOSSIBLE FOR MAN IS NOT IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD.

IF GOD COULD MAKE A FULL GROWN MAN FROM DUST , THEN WHY CAN HE PLACE A SEED INSIDE OF A WOMAN A HAVE A PERFECT SON.
However, when Jehovah told Joseph that it was by means of His holy spirit that the child had been conceived, Joseph took Mary as his wife. (Matthew 1:18-20, 24, 25)

How could this happen to an unmarried "maiden," a "virgin"? This was Mary's question, and it would have been ours also. So now let us note what was to go into operation upon Mary. "In answer the angel said to her: 'Holy spirit will come upon you, and power of the Most High will overshadow you. For that reason also what is born will be called holy, God's Son.'"-Luke 1:34, 35.

16 "Holy spirit" was to go into action, and this would result in the birth of something "holy." This would be a virgin birth. For God this was not an impossible miracle to perform, for the angel Gabriel concluded by saying to Mary: "With God no declaration will be an impossibility." (Luke 1:37) How did Mary respond to all of this? She could have said: 'But, look here! I am already engaged to marry the carpenter Joseph the son of Jacob, of the royal house of David. I am obligated to become the mother of his children. I cannot break my engagement to Joseph. You will just have to excuse me!' Thus there really did seem to be complications, but God also knew about these. So, in faith, Mary responded to Gabriel: "Look! Jehovah's slave girl! May it take place with me according to your declaration."-Luke 1:38.

17 Conception on Mary's part by a miracle of God Almighty was now in order. Suddenly, unknown to Mary on earth, God's "firstborn" Son disappeared from heaven. His life-force was transferred down to the virgin body of Mary. So, "during the time his mother Mary was promised in marriage to Joseph, she was found to be pregnant by holy spirit before they were united. However, Joseph her husband, because he was righteous and did not want to make her a public spectacle, intended to divorce her secretly. But after he had thought these things over, look! Jehovah's angel appeared to him in a dream, saying: 'Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary your wife home, for that which has been begotten in her is by holy spirit. She will give birth to a son, and you must call his name Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins.'"-Matthew 1:18-21.

18 The name Jesus was prophetic. It is the shortened form of Jehoshua, meaning "Jehovah Is Salvation." Appropriately, the bearer of this name was to "save his people from their sins." He was to be, not Joseph's son, but "God's Son," as Gabriel said.

19 Mary's miraculous firstborn son was not to be a new Son of God, but was in fact the already long-existing Son of God whose life was transferred from heaven to earth through Mary as a human mother. Logically, he could not be called what many religionists of Christendom call him, "God incarnate," an expression not to be found in the inspired Bible. In heaven God's "firstborn" Son had borne the title the Word (or, Logos). Hence, in John 1:14, we read: "So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father." The clergy of Christendom are wrong in calling him "a God-man," for, in 1 Timothy 2:5, 6, he is called "a man, Christ Jesus." He never claimed to be, and he could not claim to be, the Most High God.-John 20:31; Luke 1:32.

2007-11-15 23:24:57 · answer #10 · answered by EBONY 3 · 2 0

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