GREEK IS NOT the original New Covenant writings. THat is why the eastern orthodox do not use Greek texts for the source of their bibles.
http://www.aramaicpeshitta.com/
Free literature at that site will help.
2007-11-18 03:25:28
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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GREEK
A language belonging to the Indo-European family of languages. (Hebrew is from the Semitic, another family of languages.) Greek is the language in which the Christian Scriptures were originally written (aside from Matthew’s Gospel, which was written first in Hebrew) and in which also appeared the first complete translation of the Hebrew Scriptures, namely, the Greek Septuagint. It is an inflectional language, achieving variety in expression by means of stems, prefixes, and endings.
Koine. From about 300 B.C.E. to about 500 C.E. was the age of Koine, or common Greek, a mixture of differing Greek dialects of which Attic was the most influential. Koine became the international language. It had a very distinct advantage over the other languages of the day, in that it was almost universally known. Koine means common language, or dialect common to all. How widespread the use of Koine was can be seen from the fact that the decrees of the imperial governors and of the Roman senate were translated into Koine to be distributed throughout the Roman Empire. Accordingly, the charge posted above Jesus Christ’s head at the time of his impalement was written not only in official Latin and in Hebrew but also in Greek (Koine).—Mt 27:37; Joh 19:19, 20.
Regarding the use of Greek in the land of Israel, one scholar comments: “Although the main body of the Jewish people rejected Hellenism and its ways, intercourse with the Greek peoples and the use of the Greek language was by no means eschewed. . . . The Palestinian teachers regarded the Greek translation of the Scriptures with favor, as an instrument for carrying the truth to the Gentiles.” (Hellenism, by N. Bentwich, 1919, p. 115) Of course, the primary reason for the Greek Septuagint was to benefit the Jews, especially those of the Dispersion, who no longer spoke the pure Hebrew but were familiar with Greek. Old Hebrew terms involving Jewish worship came to be replaced by terms Greek in origin. The word sy·na·go·ge′, meaning “a meeting together,” is an example of the adoption of Greek words by the Jews.
Koine used by inspired Christian writers. Since the writers of the inspired Christian Scriptures were concerned with getting their message across with understanding to all the people, it was not the classical Greek but the Koine that they used.
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2007-11-15 15:27:31
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answer #2
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answered by TeeM 7
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Hmm im one and ive nvr heard of the bible being written in koine greek, next time we knock on ur door ask us about it well be glad to give u an answer :) ps.. this is exactly why we as jehovahs go door to door to preach about god and answer any question that u want to know, plus jesus preached through out the earth and b4 he died he wanted us to carry out his preaching work
2007-11-17 14:30:51
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Which books of the Old Testament did the Apostles accept as Scripture? Did they accept the 46 books as in the Catholic Douay-Rheims Bible or the 39 books as in the King James version? The Septuagint was accepted among the Hellenistic sect of Judaism (of which St. Paul was a member) and this canon did indeed include the same books as the present-day Catholic Bible. In addition, the entire New Testament was written in Greek (Hellenist) with the exception of the Gospel of St. Matthew, which was written in Aramaic (the language spoken by Christ). Over 85% of the quotes from the Old Testament that are used in the New Testament are from the Septuagint. The Palestinian Old Testament canon was not compiled until between 70-90 A.D. and then, it was done so by the non-Christian Jews in violent reaction to early Judeo-Christianity. The Palestinian canon was the one chosen by Martin Luther based on the acceptance of it by the 16th century German Jewish community of Luther's time. This canon excludes the seven books that were accepted by the Apostles as Scripture. Why was the canon of the Protestant Old Testament decided by Jews and not Christians? In addition, why did Luther attempt to eliminate the Book of St. James and the Book of Revelation? Is it because they contradicted his dogma of "faith alone?"
Did Jesus Christ with His own mouth instruct any of His disciples to "write down" any of His teachings? No. With the exception of the Book of Revelation (Apocalypse) by St. John the Apostle, Jesus Christ gives no such instructions to any of His disciples or Apostles. In fact, only the Apostles Peter, John, James, Jude and Matthew were inspired by the Holy Spirit to write Scripture. Why were the other seven not inspired of the Holy Spirit to "write" if the "written" Word of God is the only authority to be followed in the Christian religion?
2007-11-16 21:08:26
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Because it was written for the common people and Koine?(spelling) Greek was the language of the common masses. Just as Jesus went to the common masses, to the meek, the uneducated, the poor, the down trodden.
2007-11-15 12:46:43
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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