Which verse is right? THese verses have God saying contradictory things. Which verse was GOd wrong in? Did they sin, was it an abomination? Or, were they given
BOM Jacob 2:24 Behold, David and aSolomon truly had many wives and concubines, which thing was abominable before me, saith the Lord.
DOC 132:38-39 38 David also received many wives and concubines, and also Solomon and Moses my servants, as also many others of my servants, from the beginning of creation until this time; and in nothing did they sin save in those things which they received not of me.
39 David’s wives and concubines were given unto him of me, by the hand of Nathan, my servant, and others of the prophets who had the keys of this power; and in none of these things did he sin against me save in the case of Uriah and his wife; and, therefore he hath fallen from his exaltation, and received his portion; and he shall not inherit them out of the world, for I gave them unto another, saith the Lord.
2007-11-15 05:42:27 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Peter- in the 1 Sam verses it is talking about the Lord giving David the kingdom of Isreal. He is not talking about giving a man wives for any other reason than to establish the kingdom of Isreal. In that day- one way to show you had taken away a former kings authority and rule was to take the former kings wives.
This is why David got so pissed at his son who slept with his concubine- it was upsurping his kingdom.
SO the 1 Sam verse is primarily about the succession of the kingdom- not about the validity of plural marriage.
2007-11-15 06:30:53 · update #1
That is one of the problems......you leave the bible you open yourself up to error of men
If it was an abomination why did Joseph do it? He translated it.......didnt he read it?
2007-11-15 05:45:46 · answer #1 · answered by jesussaves 7 · 2⤊ 9⤋
Because David did that which was right in the eyes of the Lord, and turned not aside from any thing that he commanded him all the days of his life, save only in the matter of Uriah the Hittite (I Kings 15:5).
The Doctrine and Covenants agrees with the Bible.
The verse in Jacob is directed to a specific group of people who were using David and Solomon as an excuse to commit whoredoms. These two were the only two, of the many prophets practicing plural marriage, who did that which was abominable in the sight of the Lord. It was not the taking multiple wives as the Lord directed that was the problem, but , they sinned in the taking of unlawful wives. David in the case of Bathsheba (1 Kings 15:5) through lustful, purposeful plotting and murder, and Solomon with his foreign wives.
2007-11-15 09:47:25 · answer #2 · answered by whapingmon 4 · 3⤊ 0⤋
2 Samuel 12:7-8
And Nathan said to David, Thou art the man. Thus saith the Lord God of Israel, I anointed thee king over Israel, and I delivered thee out of the hand of Saul; and I gave thee thy master's house, and thy master's wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things.
So it seems, using a biblical reference, God DID give David the wives.
Then in Samuel 2:9 where Samuel killed Uriah and took his wife...it seems that taking the wife is not the sin, but killing Uriah is the sin.
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Now as far as the wording of this...
If you look at Jacob 2:27 it says "Wherefore, my brethren, hear me, and hearken to the word of the Lord: For there shall not any man among you have save it be one wife; and concubines he shall have none;"
So was God saying that the multiple wives were the abominations, or David and Solomon's concubines the reason for the sin? Why would God give David multiple wives if it was a sin?
It would seem that since God gave David wives it would not be a sin. Also, it would seem that even when David took the wife, while having others, it was not a sin, but David having concubines is the sin.
2007-11-15 06:10:24 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 2⤋
First of all, God is not contradicory in either. The D&C scriptue is more detailed because it was modern revelation from God. The scripture from Jacob was being written by a prophet on gold plates. Key point is this: Little room to explain deep doctrine, so there is not a full description of the meaning behind the wives of David or Solomon. They were only committing sin if they took on more than they were supposed to, such as in the case of David when he sent Uriah to die, because David had slept with his wife. I hope this helps. Enjoy.
2007-11-15 05:49:21 · answer #4 · answered by E to the Jay 2 · 8⤊ 2⤋
You got this from another question that I have already read. So much for originality!!
To answer your question: They aren't contradictory. God authorizes who He will. The second is explaining why it was an abomination in the case of David. Read Jacob 2:23. Then you will understand this scripture better.
2007-11-15 05:48:22 · answer #5 · answered by odd duck 6 · 11⤊ 2⤋
They are both right. One was written in ancient times and on was written in 1843. One was edited by Mormon and one was a revelation to Joseph Smith.
2007-11-15 10:28:12 · answer #6 · answered by Brother G 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Other people answered this question well.
We know that you hate the Mormons, so it is hard to take you seriously that this question is sincere. Sounds like you are trying to advertise your Mormon hate.
2007-11-15 06:01:28 · answer #7 · answered by LDS Mom 6 · 8⤊ 2⤋
why do you devote so much time to tearing down the mormon faith when it clearly doesn't work? your time could be better put to use preaching the good faith instead of attacking others.
2007-11-15 06:05:04 · answer #8 · answered by Captain Galactic 6 · 4⤊ 3⤋