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JW's why is it that every time my residnet JW visits me he reads from a New World order..I mean NEw world translation

and why is it when we compare verses his edition always omits the necessary words which qualify Jesus as God?

New International:

Matthew 28:16-19

Then the eleven disciples went to Galilee, to the mountain where Jesus had told them to go. When they saw him, they worshiped him; but some doubted. Then Jesus came to them and said, "All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. 19Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in[a] the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,

NWT:

However, the eleven disciples went into Gal´ilee to the mountain where Jesus had arranged for them, and when they saw him they did obeisance, but some doubted.And Jesus approached and spoke to them, saying: “All authority has been given me in heaven and on the earth. Go therefore and make disciples of people of all the nations

2007-11-15 04:22:08 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

So why does every other bible say worship, but your special one says obesiance?

If you can use other bibles, then the word is worship and since only God can receive worship i guess this make Jesus God.But in your nwt it says obesiance t oknida soften the blow

The text

The King James and NEW international are based on the textus receptus, the received text

THe NWT is based on the translations of WEstcott and hort

Westcott became Prime minister of England
and Hort became Arcbishop of Canterbury

both were involved in the society for psionic research, in fact they founded it

and yes it involved talking to the dead, something that is banned by the JW society

2007-11-15 04:27:44 · update #1

I ran out of characters, and baptize them inthe name of the Father the son and the Holy spirit,

Worship means he is God

Obesiances a word which replaces worship and allows them to beleive that Jesus was not worshipped

2007-11-15 04:35:50 · update #2

CONUNDRUM if all the authority has been given to Jesus what does that make Jesus

If all the authorities of the president of the US were given to you, you would be the president

or you would share the same title and authority as him

so Jesus is God in the flesh

thanks

2007-11-15 05:18:24 · update #3

12 answers

The short answer is Jehovah's Witnesses claim the Trinity doctrine is pagan. I won't go into that because you're bound to get screeds of answers telling you why. They refuse to worship Jesus and say that anyone believing in the Trinity is a polytheist. Sadly, they do not understand the triune nature of the Godhead - if they did, they would realise that trinitarians are monotheists. The reason they have to use their own translation of the Bible is because they have changed it to conform to their theology. Here is a classic example:

John 1:1-2 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning" (NIV).

That same scripture in the New World Translation changes 'the Word was God' to 'the Word was a god'.

Dr J R Mantey (who was quoted by the society on pp1158-9 of their Kingdom Interlinear Translation original edition but not the 1985 reprint) in reference to John 1:1 actually said of this translation that it was... A shocking mistranslation. Obsolete and incorrect. It is neither scholarly nor reasonable to translate John 1:1 'The Word was a god'. Dr Mantey actually wrote to the Society demanding that they no longer use his name in their publications.

Dr Bruce M Metzger said of this translation that it was... A frightful mistranslation. Erroneous, pernicious, reprehensible. If the Jehovah's Witnesses take this translation seriously, they are polytheists.

Dr Samuel J Mikolaski of Zurich, Switzerland said... This anarthrous construction does not mean what the indefinite article 'a' means in English. It is monstrous to translate the phrase 'the Word was a god'.

Only one of the five men responsible for the translation of the NWT had any adequate schooling or background to function as a critical Bible translator. Yet in a Scottish Court of Sessions trial in November 1954, this man (Frederick W Franz) was unable to translate the Hebrew of Genesis 2:4 when invited to do so by an Attorney (Pursuer's Proof pp7, 102,103).

They should look at Duetoronomy 32:39 "For Jehovah will judge his people... See now that I - I am he and there are no gods together with me" and ask themselves 'How many gods are there with Jehovah?' Then they should turn to John 1:1 again, re-read it (This one was in [the] beginning with God) and ask themselves 'Who is this god that was with Jehovah?'

We agree it is impossible for God to lie and that ALL scripture is inspired by God. You see, if Jesus is not Jehovah then these two scriptures contradict each other. However, if Jesus is Jehovah there is no contradiction.

Why don't you ask them what they make of Luke 24:52 after Jesus ascended into heaven - "Then they [the disciples] worshipped him"? How can it be right to worship Jesus unless he is God? Or were the disciples polytheists?

2007-11-15 05:01:15 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 5 0

My 1969 Kingdom Interlinear of the Greek Scriptures has Hebrews 1:6 read: "And let all God's angels worship him [Christ]." Unsurprisingly, later editions changed 'worship' to 'do obeisance to'. Clearly, the 1969 edition was a mistake! JW Bibles cannot have angels worshipping Christ, the Risen Lord of Glory! That will not do! Why, the next thing, Jehovah's Witnesses will be worshipping Christ and that is a disfellowshipping offence!

It does not take Sherlock Holmes to deduce that every single occurence in the Bible where Christ receives worship, the JW Bible changes that to, 'do obeisance to'. But every time Jehovah receives worship, why, it remains as 'worship' - even though it's exactly the same word being translated.

JWs need to turn to Revelation 5:14 in their KIT where the Greek translated 'worshiped' is exactly the same Greek word now translated 'did obeisance to' in Matthew 28:9. Exactly the same Greek word given two different translations. Why? Because in Revelation Jehovah is the object of the bowing down but in Matthew Jesus is the object of the same adoration. There's none so blind....

2007-11-15 06:54:22 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 4 0

First off, Jesus is Jehovah God, the Almighty. Jesus is NOT his own Father. This heresy comes from a total misrepresentation, and misunderstanding of the Holy Trinity. In the Holy Trinity, three seperate people are one God. The Son (Jesus) is eternally begotten by the Father (That is, he is Not created but the phrase 'begotten' refers to their relationship as Father and Son). The Holy Spirit is proceeding from the Father. The Father is God, the Son is God, and the Holy Spirit is God. There is not three Gods but ONE God. Jesus is the Son of the Father, and because the Father is God, Jesus is the Son of God. That doesn't mean that Jesus is his own Son, nor that the Father is his own Father. Some people might ask "How are the Three people one God?" The Simple answer is that nobody knows, as to know the exact relationship between the persons of God, would be to know the mind of God. Nobody can no the mind of God, but God himself. This is why Jesus says: "No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal him." (Matt. 11:27B)

2016-04-04 02:44:15 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

OR, it could be asked, why does your Bible throw in the bit about the 'Trinity' ('Father, Son & Holy Ghost').....???

To answer the question "Jesus is God?", here ya go, it's a link, http://www.watchtower.org/e/20050422/article_01.htm

AND, why is it that most Bibles "omit" the NAME of God???
Exodus 3:15

NWT:
".....This is what you are to say to the sons of Israel, 'Jehovah the God of your forefathers......this is my name to time in definite, and this is the memorial of me to generation after generation."

And compare Psalms 83:18, Exodus 6:2,3, Isaiah 42:8. You can read the NWT on-line at http://www.watchtower.org/e/bible/index.htm.

2007-11-15 05:52:52 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

http://cf.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?strongs=4352

Lexicon Results for proskyneō (Strong's G4352)

1) to kiss the hand to (towards) one, in token of reverence

2) among the Orientals, esp. the Persians, to fall upon the knees and touch the ground with the forehead as an expression of profound reverence

3) in the NT by kneeling or prostration to do homage (to one) or make obeisance, whether in order to express respect or to make supplication

a) used of homage shown to men and beings of superior rank

1) to the Jewish high priests

2) to God

3) to Christ

4) to heavenly beings

5) to demons



You will notice the word can be used as obeisance or worship depending who it is referring to.

Translating this word into obeisance is never wrong

Translating this word as worship can be right or wrong.

Notice that the King James Bible says that unfaithful Jews will worship Christians:

Rev 3:9 Behold , I will make them of the synagogue of Satan , which say they are Jews , and are not , but do lie; behold, I will make them to come and worship 4352 before thy feet, and to know that I have loved thee.

This worship is not directed to God because they are members of the synagogue of Satan.

In reality the unfaithful Jews will do obeisance to Christians or as most other translations say, "will bow down to".

The NWT didn't mistranslate Matt 28, but correct rendered the Greek into English honestly.

edit:==============

How accurate is the NWT of John 1:1?

Notice the word for word translation in the Empatic Diagott:

http://www.thedcl.org/bible/diaglott-nt/ed-john.pdf

"a god was the Word"

Notice the translation of John 1:1 into Coptic a ancient language with the indefinite article:

A Fairly Literal English Translation of the Coptic Text:

1 In the beginning the Word existed. The Word was in the presence of God, and the Word was a god.

http://copticjohn.bravehost.com/index.html

This translation was made 100 years after John wrote his Gospel, by people who actually spoke the Greek John spoke.

Who does John believe to be God?

Rev 1:6 and he made us to be a kingdom, priests to his God and Father

Who is the God and Father of our Lord Jesus?

.

2007-11-15 04:51:20 · answer #5 · answered by TeeM 7 · 0 0

Just because you Think Jesus is God does not make it so.
New International Bible.
" "All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me.

New World Translation.
" “All authority has been given me in heaven and on the earth"
What you should be asking is This " WHO is Giving Jesus All Authority IF Jesus is God?

Open your Eyes..And Mind.

2007-11-15 04:37:57 · answer #6 · answered by conundrum 7 · 2 0

Not a JW, but it seems to me that the simplest way of answering your question would be to simply look at the original text in Greek and do your own translation.

If, however, you're unable to translate Biblical Greek then how do you know that your translation is either correct or more correct than the JW's?

2007-11-15 04:26:50 · answer #7 · answered by Cathy 6 · 3 1

Why did you deliberately leave off the latter part of verse 19?
It reads the same way in the NWT as it does in the New International.
Shame on you!

2007-11-15 04:30:32 · answer #8 · answered by sugarbee 7 · 1 1

Because they beleive GOD and JESUS ae two different people. So they will omit certain words that say JESUS is GOD. From a former JW

2007-11-15 04:30:32 · answer #9 · answered by maryann p 3 · 3 2

the jws wrote their own version of the bible so its going to differ from yours

and hundreds of other translations and edited versions.

2007-11-15 04:28:31 · answer #10 · answered by DogmaDeleted 5 · 1 1

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