Jam 1:1 ¶ James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting.
Notice the subtlety :)
2007-11-15
01:51:52
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14 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
a means another sign of the inspiration of the King James,
2007-11-15
02:25:32 ·
update #1
23 thanks for noticing a subtle difference, :)
2007-11-15
02:29:41 ·
update #2
atheist: after Paul came James, is what I'm saying also sir :)
2007-11-15
02:31:48 ·
update #3
You mean that simply used the phrase "Lord Jesus Christ" instead of "Jesus Christ" or "Christ Jesus"? What does that mean to you if so?
It also doesn't say he is "OF the Lord Jesus Christ," it says he was a "SERVANT of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ."
2007-11-15 01:56:52
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answer #1
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answered by johnny_zone 2
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No it's saying James is a servant of God AND a servant of Lord Jesus Christ.
2007-11-15 10:26:11
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answer #2
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answered by Liz^24 4
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Is there a question here? Your subtley is lost in games of semantics.
Romans 1:1
Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God,
Titus 1:1
Paul, a servant of God, and an apostle of Jesus Christ, according to the faith of God's elect, and the acknowledging of the truth which is after godliness;
2Peter 1:1
Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ:
Jude 1:1
Jude, the servant of Jesus Christ, and brother of James, to them that are sanctified by God the Father, and preserved in Jesus Christ, and called:
Paul, Peter, James, and Jude are all "of" Jesus Christ. Servants of the most High God and of His manifestation in the flesh, Jesus. As a minister of Jesus Christ, even I am "of Jesus."
Paul and Peter, Apostles to the Gentiles and the Jews respectively, and
James and Jude, both half-brothers to Jesus.
Just not sure what your point is.
2007-11-15 10:11:15
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answer #3
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answered by Bobby Jim 7
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James was a "servant" of the Lord Jesus Christ. "All" Christians are serving the Lord.
2007-11-15 10:01:01
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answer #4
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answered by Freedom 7
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Notice he believed his message was meant for Jews only.
Jesus gave him this impression during a speech written in Mathew 10.
It is pretty clear that the disciples all believed Jesus was sent for Jews and not Gentiles, and it wasn't until Paul came along, never hearing Jesus teachings directly that Gentile inclusion became a doctrine.
2007-11-15 09:56:50
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answer #5
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answered by ɹɐǝɟsuɐs Blessed Cheese Maker 7
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It means "a servant... of the Lord Jesus Christ". Not that he was "of" Jesus. What is your point?
2007-11-15 09:56:02
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answer #6
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answered by CNJRTOM 5
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That sounds about right, as James (known as James the Just)(brother of Jesus) was the founder of the christian religious cult of the early jews..!!
2007-11-15 10:03:23
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answer #7
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answered by Terry M 5
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I think that all of the writers knew that Jesus was Lord.............however, since James was his 1/2 brother calling him Lord is significant. I think he struggled with it.
2007-11-15 09:55:25
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answer #8
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answered by fanofchan 6
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yes.... and that is because he was Jesus's half brother to be technical. James was a son of Joseph and Mary. but not GOD and Mary. You should read Jude - a few books past James. he was another half brother of Jesus. he comes right out and tells you that.
2007-11-15 10:01:50
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answer #9
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answered by yeahsandnays 1
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James finally came around and believed. I suppose it might be because he saw his brother after the resurrection. Too bad he was a verifiable Legalist.
2007-11-15 10:00:47
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answer #10
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answered by Christian Sinner 7
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