English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

2007-11-14 22:59:29 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Politics

11 answers

No, that is a myth perpetrated by right wing evangelicals. The US system of laws derived from a combination of Greco-Roman law and British common law (which grew out of Anglo-Saxon and Norman French law).

Edit:
I didn't see Baddius' comment before I posted, but he has it completely right.

Here is an example of a Judeo-Christian tradition:

They attacked Midian just as the Lord had commanded Moses, and they killed all the men. . .They burned all the towns and villages. . . But Moses was furious with all the military commanders who had returned from the battle. "Why have you let all the women live?" he demanded. "These are the very ones who followed Balaam's advice and caused the people of Israel to rebel against the Lord at Mount Peor. They are the ones who caused the plague to strike the Lord's people. Now kill all the boys and all the women who have slept with a man. Only the young girls who are virgins may live; you may keep them for yourselves." Numbers 31:7-18

2007-11-14 23:12:34 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No. Our justice system is built from the Ancient Roman system of laws. There are some similarities between religious laws and our justice system's laws, but that is mainly because of the moral standards that have been set by popular religions. These moral standards have shaped what the laws are to be, but the Justice System itself is based upon the Ancient Roman system of justice.

In Rome, when someone was arrested, they were presumed innocent until found guilty by a public official (some public officials were corrupt, but it still was that way). In Rome, you were entitled to appeals and a speedy trial. In Rome, after arrest, there were numerous steps that had to be taken (deliberately drawn out to prevent false prosecution) before one could be charged and punished. The modern justice systems of most countries in the Western World are based upon what the Romans did. Hence, most legal terminology is in Latin.

2007-11-14 23:05:32 · answer #2 · answered by baddius 3 · 2 0

Yes.

When mankind first formed groups, they enacted laws which were based on whatever religious laws had worked to govern the living in groups.
All of the first laws of any group were religious laws.
As history evolved they found out that these laws worked pretty well as a basis for how we related to each other and to the society at large.
These laws also governed the way different societies related to each other, and the rules for warfare and spoils distribution.

No matter how much we try, we will never escape the fact that humans have always found structure in religious beliefs, and we used those beliefs to structure our societies.
We may be more evolved now, and not "need" God, or anything like Him, but He will always underline our existence.

If we were to have a great cataclysm, and find our society gone, those who were left would, once again revert to their religious base looking for structure. This is how we are wired up, and no amount of denying it will do any good.

2007-11-14 23:15:12 · answer #3 · answered by maryjellerson 4 · 0 1

Sort of, sort of not. Laws have been based, from ancient days to now in some part, on the Code of Hammurabi which were the first written law. Much later, more laws were passed to control people's activities to make them easier to rule. Punishments were often swift and harsh, much like today's laws. The idea of the three-strikes law and mandatory minimum sentencing were all preached on prior to passing as law. the church has always been used as a tool to preach propaganda for the government.

2016-05-23 06:14:52 · answer #4 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

some of it comes from the laws found in the various religious books that have been been used over the centuries and some of it has been formulated to fit the times we live in. Laws constantly change and so do their meanings. We couldn't possibly use law books written 175 years ago. Terms are different and circumstances are different. Law must change with the times....however, to answer your question, the basics of many laws go back to religious analysis of the law.

2007-11-14 23:16:07 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

All of civilization was built from religious laws.

2007-11-14 23:48:42 · answer #6 · answered by Perplexed Bob 5 · 0 0

If it is, is it such a bad thing. I am not advocating the support of a religion by govt. Certain aspects of religious laws need to be in a society such as murder, theft, lying in court or to the police. It is not as if all religious laws are supported by the govt. people are still allowed to eat pork and drive cars on sat.

2007-11-14 23:06:19 · answer #7 · answered by andy g 4 · 0 0

Actually the American judicial system is based on ancient Roman law. And as I am sure you know ancient Rome was not a christian society.

2007-11-14 23:30:27 · answer #8 · answered by ndmagicman 7 · 0 0

It is built from that and a combination of practical morality... it doesn't take some bible thumping, god loving person to tell you that raping a child is bad.

2007-11-14 23:03:41 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Our justice system s based on Judeo-Chrisian laws, yes.

2007-11-14 23:01:49 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

fedest.com, questions and answers