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By providing a counterexample to one of the field axioms prove that the set of irrational numbers does not form a field.

2007-11-14 20:44:08 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

5 answers

I dont know anything about set theory or any fields and junk... but after reading Rob K, I think I have a counter example to whatever in the heck he said.

What about transcendental numbers? They are irrational and dont follow this squaring / arithmetic rule.

2007-11-14 23:44:47 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

This should be pretty simple...to be a field, a set of numbers must be closed under all the arithmetic operations, that is, +,-,*,/. Obviously we can choose any square root of a nonsqare positive integer such as 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8, 10, ... and so on. Squaring such an irrational number obviously gives a natural number, and is not irrational. Since the multiplication of these two irrational numbers (which happens to be the same number, but that is irrelevant) is a rational number, the irrational numbers fail to be closed under multiplication and thus do not form a field.

2007-11-14 20:54:25 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

The answers so far are correct, but even easier would be to remind that EVERY FIELD MUST contain zero and unit elements - the neutral elements of both binary operations - addition and multiplication. But 0 and 1 are rational - the set of irrational numbers does not contain them.

Note: the "smallest" possible field - Galois Field GF(2) contains exactly 2 elements GF(2) = {0; 1}

2007-11-15 06:30:46 · answer #3 · answered by Duke 7 · 2 1

the set of Irrational numbers can not be expressed as a/b. 0 not belong to Irr. numbers, and 0 times any Irr. number is own number. So this axiom not hold and Irr. numbers not form a fieid

2016-09-28 11:15:54 · answer #4 · answered by Hewa 1 · 0 0

Let r be irrational. then -r is irrational. they add up to a rational number.

2007-11-15 02:45:35 · answer #5 · answered by Michael M 7 · 0 1

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