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Convert √2e^(-π/4)i to rectangular

√2(cos(-π/4)+i sin(-π/4))

=√2((1/√2)+(-1/√2)i)

I understand that cos is not negative because -cos=cos, I don't understand why the cos and sin equations are converted to (1/√2) when sin and cos of pi/4 is (√2/2)???

thanks a lot for your help.

2007-11-14 15:19:27 · 1 answers · asked by Nate 6 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

1 answers

(1/√2) = (√2)/2

proof

multiply (1/√2) by (√2) /(√2) , you get
(√2)/2

2007-11-14 15:24:44 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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