does anyone know any examples in which, Shakespeare's Midsummer Night's Dream demonstrates the negative treatment of women. or where i can find evidence and examples?
thanks.
2007-11-14 13:08:59 · 2 answers · asked by callmejeseca 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Books & Authors
The father of one of the girls orders that she marry the man of his choice, or according to the laws of Athens, she must die.
Oberon gets Puck to put a drug into his wife Titania's eyes so she will fall in love with whatever she sees next, and make a fool of herself.
There seems to be a reference that Theseus once conquered Hippolyta (one-time queen of the amazons) with the sword, but now he will woo her in a more amorous way.
Also with all of the confusion about who loves whom, and who has been bewitched into loving someone else, it may be that the men are allowed to bluster, while the women suffer emotionally. This last point would take a close reading of the play and teasing out the treatment and her reaction of each woman.
2007-11-14 13:38:30 · answer #1 · answered by steve_geo1 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There's nothing negative. Biitches are too sensitive in this day and age to appreciate a good marriage and a stable life. Everyone wants to be like Brittney and shake their *** for money. Why not just be a whore? Shakespeare talked of that too.
2007-11-15 01:09:11 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋