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17 answers

Yes: Article VI, section 3, states that:

“ ...no religious test shall ever be required as a qualification to any office or public trust under the United States.

And the First Amendment as previously stated.


As usual, the "Christian Nation" people don't know the difference between the Constitution and the Declaration of Independence,and ignore the fact that the Declaration only mentions a "creator" not Jesus or Jehovah or any god in the the sense of the Christian god and the fact that the author of the declaration, Thomas Jefferson was a Deist and his concept of a creator was a entity that that essentially just put things in motion and has no impact on day-to-day events or salvation or any concept that even vaguely resembles the Christian god, the Holy Trinity, etc.

2007-11-14 08:54:04 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Yes, it is proof.

Found a good link, worth checking into.
Here are two excerpts from the link:

"Religion makes only one direct and obvious appearance in the original Constitution that seems to point to a desire for some degree of religious freedom. That appearance is in Article 6, at the end of the third clause:
[N]o religious Test shall ever be required as a Qualification to any Office or public Trust under the United States."

and

"In the debates of the Constitutional Convention, religion did not get a lot of sound bites. It should be noted that without exception, the Framers were Christian or, at the very least, believed in God (Deism). There were no Jews or Muslims, no Hindus or atheists, and only two Roman Catholics. There were members of more than a half-dozen sects of the Protestant side of Christianity, though. Disagreements about style and method of worship between them were nearly as vast and incongruous as any seen today between, say, Jews and Muslims, such that the Framers wanted to ensure that no one sect could ever seize control of a government and start a theocracy."

2007-11-14 08:47:35 · answer #2 · answered by docscholl 6 · 5 1

Yes! But the Constitution doesn't really address the separation between church and state, except to -express- it in the prohibition of a religious test and a brief mention in the 1st amendment.

If you really want to understand the thinking behind the 'wall of seperation', look up the Virginia Statute of Religious Freedom, written by Jefferson, about the same time.

The preamble of this act explains the reason for it, which the Constitution doesn't. Basically what Jefferson was worried about was not the church corrupting government but vice-versa, church leaders being corrupted by politics and conflating a political message with their religious one.

And that's just what we're seeing now, as the wall of separation is crumbling!

2007-11-14 08:55:05 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

definite, it somewhat is evidence. stumbled on a sturdy link, truly worth checking into. listed under are 2 excerpts from the link: "faith makes in basic terms one direct and obtrusive visual allure interior the unique shape that looks to show to a choose for some degree of non secular freedom. That visual allure is in Article 6, on the tip of the 0.33 clause: [N]o non secular try shall ever be required as a Qualification to any workplace or public have faith below the US." and "interior the debates of the Constitutional convention, faith did no longer get quite some sound bites. it may be talked approximately that with out exception, the Framers have been Christian or, on the least, believed in God (Deism). there have been no Jews or Muslims, no Hindus or atheists, and in basic terms 2 Roman Catholics. there have been individuals of greater beneficial than a nil.5-dozen sects of the Protestant area of Christianity, although. Disagreements approximately form and technique of worship between them have been almost as large and incongruous as any considered as we communicate between, say, Jews and Muslims, such that the Framers had to make particular that no person sect would desire to ever grab administration of a central authority and start up a theocracy."

2016-10-02 09:00:43 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Yes, the first amendment says so.

(Jefferson wrote the Declaration of Independence and he was a deist. The "Creator" he was referring to was a passive "Creator" who set the universe in motion and let it take its course. That "Creator" is not the God of the Bible.)

2007-11-14 14:59:09 · answer #5 · answered by Todd 5 · 0 0

Some folks can't believe what they read, watch them at stop signs and then ask if they understand the Constitution.

2007-11-14 08:57:59 · answer #6 · answered by edubya 5 · 2 0

I think the founding fathers saw the advantage of the seperation between church and state. Sadly I feel this is being chipped away at by radical groups that are welding more and more political power.

2007-11-14 09:09:31 · answer #7 · answered by Robert S 5 · 1 0

Actually it doesn't say that the US is not a Christian/Bible nation. It says you can be a Christian/Bible nation if you want, and we can't interfere.

2007-11-14 08:57:41 · answer #8 · answered by mbush40 6 · 1 2

No one is saying that America should force religion on the people. It's just that the cons have found a market, and they are selling a product to that market. Bible bangers get and vote.

2007-11-14 08:45:43 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

no but there's plenty of proof all around of it being a Zionist occupied Nation.

2007-11-14 09:17:34 · answer #10 · answered by John M 4 · 2 0

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