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I know that this series converges, but I need an explanation of this. The series is from n=1 to infinity of (-1)^n+1(ln (n)/n)

2007-11-14 08:39:30 · 2 answers · asked by Dan H 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

Using L'Hopital's Rule
ln(n)/n = 0
lim n --> infinity
Also | ln(n)/n| >| ln (n+1)/(n+1)|
Thus the condition for convergence is met.

2007-11-14 08:48:58 · answer #1 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 0 2

It converges by The Alternating Series Test.

2007-11-14 16:55:29 · answer #2 · answered by Tony 7 · 0 2

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