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2007-11-14 07:37:49 · 1 answers · asked by Izzy 3 in Arts & Humanities History

1 answers

Nope

"To Hobbes, these terms are only used when a particular person dislikes a monarchical, aristocratic, or democratic form of government. This argument displays his belief and support for authority, regardless of much of the negativity that may be attributed to the ruler or rulers. To him, as long as the subjects are protected from danger from outside or within, then the price that they pay is justifiable. His main drive was to strengthen the idea of an absolute state, but he did this without subscribing to the concept of the divine-rights-of-kings, or to the idea that monarchy was a moral institution. He did not agree with the early philosophers that the monarchs are naturally predisposed for the job. "

2007-11-14 07:43:55 · answer #1 · answered by johnslat 7 · 2 0

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