ive heard a strong argument on both sides of this so i want some more info on it
Say that the yankees play the red sox at home. One of the bosox pirchers is throwing a no hitter. But the arod is on first in the ninth inning 2 outs and the red sox are about to win. Then melky hits a ball but arod touches it on the basepaths. Is that a no hitter?
2007-11-14 05:12:53 · 6 answers · asked by BRAVESFAN 3 in Sports ➔ Baseball
No, It would go down as a hit, and runner interference. The game would be over.
Rule 10.05: (a) The official scorer shall credit a batter with a base hit when: (5) a fair ball that has not been touched by a fielder touches a runner or an umpire, unless a runner is called out for having been touched by an Infield Fly, in which case the official scorer shall not score a hit,
http://mlb.mlb.com/mlb/official_info/official_rules/official_scorer_10.jsp
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2007-11-14 05:17:16 · answer #1 · answered by Kris 6 · 7⤊ 2⤋
The answer is the same if you are talking about a ground ball, A-Rod would be out if he was hit by the batted ball and the defensive player was behind him. Melky would be awarded a single. If the defensive player was in front of A-Rod and the ground ball was past him A-Rod would not be out and Melky would still be awarded a single, it makes no difference how many outs there are and the fact that a no hitter is involved is not an issue. C-Note: the runner is out after touching the ball, how do you score the batter? The batter is always given a hit when the runner touches a ball that is in play. Why don't you just step up and admit when you are wrong instead of the personal attacks you seem to enjoy on so many questions, grow-up. By the way, great idea of yours blocking everyone that has a different opinion than you, none of us want to deal with you anyway. We will be awaiting your down thumbs from your other accounts.
2007-11-14 13:20:25 · answer #2 · answered by Frizzer 7 · 6⤊ 1⤋
You got it wrong last time, C-note. Somebody cites the proper section (which you deride them for doing), you shoot from the lip and they're right, you're wrong. What don't you understand?
Why post another incorrect answer?
Runner is out, batter is credited with hit.
2007-11-14 15:25:12 · answer #3 · answered by llk51 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes, the out would go down as interference and the batter does not get a hit.
Assuming of course that A-Rod reached on an error, fielder's choice, BB, or an interference call himself.
2007-11-14 15:14:51 · answer #4 · answered by soulsource7 3 · 1⤊ 3⤋
Yes hit by batted ball is an out and i believe putout goes to first baseman
2007-11-14 14:29:24 · answer #5 · answered by G-mack 2 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Yes it's a no hitter. The runner is out when the ball touches him. You have to get a HIT to break up a no HITTER. It's called runner interference - game over.
2007-11-14 13:22:26 · answer #6 · answered by Legends Never Die 4 · 2⤊ 9⤋