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3 answers

the answer is yes: "new amsterdam --> new york"
british colonies (remember?) and French Canada and the former Lousiana Purchase land area (which covered much of the midwest...but the US (after independence from the UK, bought it from the french at 3 cents an acre).

are you trying to cheat to answer a school homework question? if so, you arent doing yourself any favors. trust me, in the long run your skills of research, reading and analysis will help you for the rest of your life. if you dont hone these skills then you will likely have to deal with a tougher life. (apologies if i have assumed wrong - just seemed like a random question)

2007-11-13 10:07:57 · answer #1 · answered by swelltoad 2 · 0 0

Your question is completely backwards. The European powers, including France, England, Spain, Sweden, and the Dutch Republic, explored the New World looking for trade routes, resources, new territory, etc. The Thirteen Colonies were English from the start (except for New York, which originally was called New Netherland and belonged to the Dutch). They were not "states" until the Declaration of Independence at the earliest. Nor was European exploration limited to these 13 small divisions on the eastern seaboard.

2016-05-23 01:16:31 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

Netherlands ==== New Amsterdam
France===== French Canada, Mississippi River delta
England==== Massachusetts, Jamestown etc

2007-11-13 10:37:59 · answer #3 · answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7 · 0 0

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