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A manager lets his team leave early (say noon when the work day ends at 5 pm) and wants to pay everyone for working the full day. The team consists of a mix of both exempt and nonexempt employees. Is this against the law? Which ones? What is the risk or exposure of setting a precedence? What are the business ramifications (legally, financially, etc.)?

2007-11-13 03:52:22 · 4 answers · asked by B H 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

4 answers

I'm assuming that you are asking about the non-salaried employees, and to whether or not this would create a precedent elevating said non-salaried employees.

The early time off, would be considered the same as a bonus, and would therefore create no precedent on it's own merit. Should the manager state that this is common practice or company policy, then you get into an issue of precedent.

There are little to no business ramifications, except for corrective actions against the manager (if he somehow subverted company policy).

Realisitcally if the employees understand that this is not a common practice, there's no problem.

In court, should a claim arise, the issue could easily be defeated by showing a lack of prior similar situations.

2007-11-13 04:09:45 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

How is this a law problem? If the people are getting paid more than what they worked how is that breaking the law? It might be against company policy but I don't see how the law has been broken.

2007-11-13 11:57:09 · answer #2 · answered by cmdrbnd007 6 · 0 0

There's no law stating which employees may be payed what monetary amount... It could indeed violated company policy but moraly why not?

2007-11-13 12:05:03 · answer #3 · answered by treacherous_13 2 · 0 0

It breaks no laws. It may violate company policy.

2007-11-13 11:58:55 · answer #4 · answered by davidmi711 7 · 0 0

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