People complain about the "World Series" being American-only. But I had heard the name came from its original sponsor.
2007-11-13 03:11:30 · 5 answers · asked by oriole 1 in Sports ➔ Baseball
No, that's a long-standing baseball myth. The late Doug Pappas had a good article about it on his site:
http://www.roadsidephotos.com/baseball/name.htm
2007-11-13 03:19:22 · answer #1 · answered by Craig S 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Basically the origins are from the early times when the only skilled players were her in the US, see the explanation below.
From Wikipedia:
The explanation is that when the term "World's Championship Series" was first used in the 1880s, baseball at a highly-skilled level was almost exclusively confined to North America, especially the United States. Thus it was understood that the winner of the major league championship was the best baseball team in the world. The title of this event was soon shortened to "World's Series" and later to "World Series".
2007-11-13 03:16:14 · answer #2 · answered by bdough15 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Sorry, gotta say 2001. D-backs vs Yankees. not only cause the d-backs won because of what is meant to the US after 9-11. It was one hell of a series!!!
2016-04-03 22:45:18 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it was not.
Craig S is once again correct.
2007-11-13 10:49:22 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I dont think so!
2007-11-13 03:19:32 · answer #5 · answered by J Dub 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋