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21 answers

Jesus submitted because he was into submission and masochism

2007-11-12 15:13:33 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 4

The baptism of Jesus himself as performed by John must of necessity have had a meaning and purpose quite different from John’s baptism, as Jesus “committed no sin, nor was deception found in his mouth.” (1Pe 2:22) So he could not submit to an act symbolizing repentance. Undoubtedly it was for this reason that John objected to baptizing Jesus. But Jesus said: “Let it be, this time, for in that way it is suitable for us to carry out all that is righteous.”—Mt 3:13-15.
There you be..

2007-11-12 15:24:15 · answer #2 · answered by conundrum 7 · 0 0

Like He said to cousin John, "it becomes us to fulfill all righteousness". I think He knowing that He, above ALL Jews, had to submit to the High Priest, legitimately that was His cousin John and HE being the Messiah, the Christ, he had to do according to God's law and ways. The, then present high priest, had been voted in by the rulers, but the actual one in line for it by God was John. His father was Zachariah and John was the legitimate High Priest. Most people aren't even aware of that unless you are a scholar or it's been taught to you, but never the less, Jesus followed the will of His father God and not the traditional Jews. That is why He said to them that their traditions made the will of God of no affect. (Mark 7:9-13; Matthew 15:6)
He didn't submit to baptism because He had sin, but because He was doing what John was telling the God-fearing, believing Jews to do, and He needed to submit in the natural to every ordinance God was providing for the people. If He had not fulfilled the godly requirements, there may have been some sort of loophole the devil could have used to stop His fulfillment. Remember, Jesus said after the 'supper' and after washing his apostles feet; that from then on He wouldn't say much because the wicked one was coming and "he has nothing in me".., see? there was not one little thing the devil could hook into in Jesus. NOTHING left undone, nothing amiss.
After his baptism in water.., symbolic death and resurrection..., the Holy Spirit came upon Him and STAYED and His Father God spoke from heaven confirming Him.., and He was then anointed and sent to fulfill why He came to Earth. He did not have the power to do this before the Holy Spirit empowered Him.., there is no evidence that He did one miracle BEFORE this. He then operated as a man, filled with the Holy Ghost..., NOT as the son of God. That is how He was our substitute, our guide, our 'stand-in' for death and our personal representative for resurrection.

2007-11-12 15:59:09 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

To fulfill all righteousness.

Matthew 3: 15-16 Jesus replied, "Let it be so now; it is proper for us to do this to fulfill all righteousness." Then John consented. As soon as Jesus was baptized, he went up out of the water. At that moment heaven was opened, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove and lighting on him.

Matthew 6:33 But seek first his kingdom and his righteousness, and all these things will be given to you as well.

2007-11-12 15:10:29 · answer #4 · answered by Angie 3 · 0 0

Because John the Baptist wa called that for a reason. God had to have a person on earth to give the 'Baptism By Immersion' to Jesus, the only Begotten Son. Otherwise, there would not have been a connection between God the Father, and Jesus Christ the Son, ergo, no relationship for us to have.

2007-11-12 15:11:20 · answer #5 · answered by john_r 2 · 0 1

Jesus submitted to baptism by John because it was ordained that he be baptised by John.. you are missing something here.. and that is who exactly was John the baptist.. read matthew17: entirely.. and pay close attention to 17:13.. read it a couple of times.. then you will understand exactly who John was.. He was the witness that was to come and foretell of Christ.. .. John was beheaded.. but Jesus did not react much to the news of the beheading.. there is a reason for that.. read the chapter.. and then you should understand.. exactly who John the baptist was and is.. they answer to your question is there.. look it up.. it is good reading and very informative.. you will learn something..

2007-11-12 15:19:39 · answer #6 · answered by J. W. H 5 · 0 1

As recorded, Jesus allowed John to baptize Him mainly for 2 reasons: 1) To prepare Himself for the ministry He was prophesied to carry out; and 2) In compliance or obedience to the will of God His Father. :

2007-11-12 15:23:09 · answer #7 · answered by deocampo_e 2 · 0 0

to fulfill the prophecy that was mentioned 700 years before the birth of Jesus...Matthew tells the story3:13.

2007-11-12 15:08:05 · answer #8 · answered by Lifeline 7 · 0 0

When Jesus came to John to be baptized, John asked the same question. Why should he, a sinful man, baptize the Messiah? He tried to prevent Jesus from being baptized saying “I need to be baptized by You and You are coming to me?” (Matthew 3:14). The baptisms that John performed symbolized repentance, and he saw this as inappropriate for the One he knew to be the spotless Lamb of God. Jesus replied that it should be done because “it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness” (Matthew 3:15). Christ was here identifying Himself with sinners. He will ultimately bear their sins; His perfect righteousness will be imputed to them (2 Corinthians 5:21). Therefore, this act of baptism was a necessary part of the righteousness He secured for sinners. His was a perfect righteousness in that He fulfilled all the requirements of the Law which we, for whose sin He would exchange His righteousness, are not capable of fulfilling. He is our perfect substitute.

This baptism was a very public one and was recorded for all generations to know about and understand, and it is important for several reasons. First, it pictures His death and resurrection. Second, it symbolizes the believer’s identification with Christ in His death, burial, and resurrection. Third, it marks His first public identification with those whose sins He would bear. Fourth, the event was a public affirmation of His Messiahship by the testimony that came directly from heaven (Matthew 3:17).

Water baptism is used as a way to identify. In Jesus’ day, when a Gentile would convert to Judaism, he would have to be publicly baptized to identify him as a convert. Obviously, Jesus was not converting to anything. Jesus’ baptism was an identification of Jesus with the Father and the Holy Spirit. Jesus was baptized to publicly announce Himself as God’s Son, and to pronounce the beginning of His ministry with the Holy Spirit’s power. Jesus did not “need” the Holy Spirit. However, to set an example for us, Jesus emptied Himself (Philippians 2:7) and relied upon the Holy Spirit’s power. Jesus' baptism and reliance upon the Holy Spirit is an example that we are to follow in our own lives.

Recommended Resource: Why Believe in Jesus?: Who He Is, What He Did, and His Message for You Today by Tim LaHaye.

2007-11-12 15:05:14 · answer #9 · answered by Freedom 7 · 8 1

Jesus was Baptized only because He did not want to offend the people watching and the rest of humanity. He did not want to cause others to stumble because of Him. He did it for our benefit, not because it was required of Him.

2007-11-12 16:22:34 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

To set an example of humility. Others consider it a political move, to be where many people are so as to maximize one's audience.

2007-11-12 15:10:18 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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