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12 answers

Yes, if all the connections share a router.

If you have several people using a terminal at a pub for example or an internet cafe or a public access point, the public IP will be the same but the router will know which person requested what data and it is routed to that machine.

ADDITIONAL:
AN IP address behind a router will only show as the public IP address, the laptop or PC connected to the router if on a class 'C' network which is the most common type will have an IP address like 192.168.1.100 but its public IP address will be the one assigned by the Gateway its connected to like the Modem from the ISP.

On a private network you can have up to 253 machines connected for that network as one IP address will be reserved for the Router and another for the interface that you connect to locally to configure it.

MORE ADDITIONAL:
The only real way of identifying a machine behind a router is by the MAC ID of the hardware, if your ever barred from a forum but don't understand why your still barred despite a different IP address, it will be either the MAC ID of the modem has been captured or the MAC ID of the machine that's been captured and is being barred.

However, I have a neat little trick to get around this which I have used on several occasions to show up administrators of forum boards that think that they are some network wizard.


EVEN MORE ADDITIONAL:

What is it with these idiots that say NO its not possible... YES IF EFFING WELL IS, ARE YOU TOO DENSE TO READ AND COMPREHEND?

2007-11-11 20:25:21 · answer #1 · answered by cheek_of_it_all 5 · 1 1

There's probably millions of people out there with the IP address 192.168.1.2.

And 2 or more people routing through the same proxy server/NAT will all look like they're coming from the same IP address.

2007-11-11 20:35:07 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes! IP address are classifieds according to its classes (class A,B,C,D, and E)... and there is an Organization that standardize IP addresses like IANA (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority).

What we have in our house are private IP addresses that was given to us by our internet provider automatically.

IP addresses will only be different when it is used in public services like web server, mail server, and other server applications that need unique addresses for identifications...

so the answer to your question is YES!

CHEERS!

2007-11-11 20:31:18 · answer #3 · answered by ken 2 · 1 0

No, each IP address must be unique. You can have an internal network with your own addresses, but even they must not conflict with each other. A router still needs a machine IP address for each individual computer. If you're using a 'dumb terminal' (which is only one computer multi-tasking), then obviously it only requires 1 IP address.
Certain IP addresses are also allocated to specific areas of the globe.

2007-11-11 20:28:04 · answer #4 · answered by Klute 5 · 0 2

The short answer is no - public IP addresses are supposed to be globally unique. IP address allocation is overseen by IANA (http://www.iana.org/).

However, it is technically possible to duplicate IPs, although this would create routing problems. Imagine if two people had the exact same phone number (including country and area code) - there would be no way to determine which person you are trying to call.

2007-11-11 20:43:41 · answer #5 · answered by JE 1 · 0 2

Public addresses can not be duplicated. Private (local network) addresses can. They are hidden behind router's, and are not permitted on the internet. Al routers issue addresses from private blocks, normally beginning 10.0. or 192.
These are no use from the internet, but are used by vpns and machines on the same network to connect to the appropriate machine.

2007-11-11 20:57:02 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Every machine on the Internet has a unique identifying number. So No they cant be

There are over 4.3 Billion Combinations for IP addresses

2007-11-11 20:25:33 · answer #7 · answered by HARIO D 2 · 0 3

No - an IP address is unique to an individual user in a specific place.

2007-11-11 20:24:46 · answer #8 · answered by reviewee 3 · 1 3

Yes, but what ever the answer you expect to be yes, no, maybe they are all subject to the requirement that the routings that actually happen must be unambiguous so the explanation of 10.* or 192.* is as close to definitive as I can offer in my opinion.

2007-11-11 21:34:13 · answer #9 · answered by Andy T 7 · 0 0

we are actually running out if IPs world wide this the creation of IPv6 as opposed to the current IP(v4)

2007-11-11 21:34:46 · answer #10 · answered by isoar4jc 3 · 0 1

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