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2007-11-11 08:55:04 · 6 answers · asked by wittly l 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

6 answers

2% of 40
is .02 times 40
which is .8

2007-11-11 08:59:20 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

2 % of 40= 1/50 x 40= 4/5= ,80

2007-11-11 09:12:01 · answer #2 · answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7 · 0 0

start by converting 2% to a fraction :

2% = 1/50

Then we have

2% of 40 = 1/50 x 40 = 1/50 x 40/1 = 40/50

Notice that 40 was rewritten as the fraction 40/1, and that to multiply two fractions together, you simply multiply the numerators and denominators.

In order to find the simplest form of the fraction 40/50 we cancel out the greatest common divisor of 40 and 50, which is 10 :

40/50 = 4/5

The fraction 4/5 can now be converted to a decimal by carrying out the division by inspection, on paper or with a calculator :

4/5 = 0.8

So the final answer is

2% of 40 = 4/5 = 0.8

another way is:

Alternately, we can convert 2% directly to a decimal :

2% = 0.02

Then, doing the calculation by hand or with a calculator, we find

2% of 40 = 0.02 x 40 = 0.8

So the final answer is

2% of 40 = 0.8

2007-11-11 09:05:14 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Multiply 40 by 2 and divide the result by 100.

2007-11-11 09:00:58 · answer #4 · answered by cidyah 7 · 0 0

.8 is take 40*.02 that should give you your answer you can check it by taking .08/40 and then times it by 100.

so yep 2% of 40 is 0.8

2007-11-11 08:59:46 · answer #5 · answered by Rocketman 6 · 2 0

Let what = x

Let is be =

change 2% to a decimal; it becomes 0.02

Let of mean multiplication

Put it all together this way:

x = 0.02 times 40

x = 0.8

I hope this helps.

2007-11-11 09:00:00 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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