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Prove than (1-cosx)/sinx is the same as tan x/2?

so far ive got:

(1-cosx)/sinx = 0

1/sinx - tanx = 0

Am i heading in the right direction?? Could anyone help me find the answer?

Thanks

2007-11-11 07:38:06 · 2 answers · asked by Jen 3 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

do not use
=0
Use half formula for sinx and cosx

(sin^2 x/2+cos^2 x/2-cos^2 x/2+sin^2 x/2) / (2sin x/2 cos x/2)

=(2sin^2 x/2 )/(2sin^2 x/2 cos^2 x/2)
=(sin x/2 )/(cos x/2)
=tan x/2

2007-11-11 07:46:29 · answer #1 · answered by iyiogrenci 6 · 0 0

yes the right direction, the answer would be 1/inx+tan=x/2

2007-11-11 15:46:44 · answer #2 · answered by Jonathan C 2 · 0 0

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