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Could someone please explain to me how the following expression equals 0? I've done it out, but I'm having trouble seeing why.

1/2 ∫ x*e^(px) dx + 1/2 ∫x*e^(-px) dx

Here, the limits on the first integral go from negative infinity to 0 and the limits on the second integral go from 0 to infinity.

2007-11-11 03:17:51 · 2 answers · asked by cornz000 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

The two integrals are symmetric around the origin. Compare the values of the expressions under the integrals at -x for the left one and x for the right one. At every point, one will be the negative of the other.

2007-11-11 03:38:30 · answer #1 · answered by Demiurge42 7 · 1 0

its goes back to basic multiplication any number x 0 is automatically o

2007-11-11 03:21:53 · answer #2 · answered by createdamazing 2 · 0 4

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