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I have read in some books that it was created by the Hindus and I have read in other places that it was created by the Muslim Arabs.

Can anyone clarify???

2007-11-11 01:40:56 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

12 answers

it mas the hindus. the first recorded 0 is in a hindu temple some 1000 years before muslims came into existence.
the numbers are called arabic numerals becouse it was the muslims who spread the use of the numbers after adopting them themselves.

2007-11-11 02:35:52 · answer #1 · answered by manapaformetta 6 · 1 2

I do think it was created in Babylonia or Egypt, or India or china. Old mathematics was created in thees areas in cultures near big rivers.
The Greeks learned it from the Arabs.
As an example the Pythagoras sentence about the right angled triangle is proved a long time ago by Confucius.
I do not exactly know the answer of your question but since the Egyptian were good in summating and subtraction, i suppose they had an expression for A-A=0

2007-11-11 02:30:22 · answer #2 · answered by anordtug 6 · 0 0

The number Zero was used in India as far as any one can verify ,but it could go back as far as Egypt according to some in that the God Ra was represented by a circle or Sun God.Roman numerals do not have a zero, Nilus is the nearest meaning nothing,but no symbol was used only I.M,C,L,X.

2007-11-11 01:50:47 · answer #3 · answered by ardha11iday 3 · 1 0

It's included in Arabic numerals, but it pre-dates Islam. The lack of a zero was one of the reasons for the fall of the Roman Empire.

2007-11-11 02:55:59 · answer #4 · answered by cymry3jones 7 · 0 0

they did yet they were no longer the first contained in the international to do it the Mayans in Mesoamerica had the first idea of 0 as an section holder before the Arabs did. even notwithstanding the Mayans are given credit many believe that the Olmecs first got here up with idea.

2016-10-24 00:54:55 · answer #5 · answered by keels 4 · 0 0

Not an easy question to answer, i thought the Mayans but the Babylonians had a type of zero notation.
have a look at the link below for more detail than you could possibly want to know!

2007-11-11 01:53:36 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It was conceived of independently in the old world and the new. I don't know who first did so in Asia (or Africa), but it was the Mayans who first used it in central America. The same symbol (0) was used, which is not that surprising, seeing that the shape suggests a void or emptiness.

2007-11-11 04:36:36 · answer #7 · answered by harald bluetooth 2 · 0 0

Here's a reference:

http://www.newton.dep.anl.gov/askasci/gen99/gen99535.htm

I don't think this is something that will ever be definitively proved.

As '0' is artificial (it does not exist in the physical universe as a tangible entity?), I guess it must have been 'deduced' because of the use of computational mathematics.

2007-11-11 01:56:53 · answer #8 · answered by TheWizard 3 · 0 0

Arya Bhatt invented. Was spread by arabs, so came to be known as Arab Numbers.

2007-11-12 16:10:25 · answer #9 · answered by Panchal J 4 · 1 0

the arabs introduced it into europe, but the hindus apparently had invented it before them!

2007-11-11 03:37:40 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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