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2007-11-10 18:30:11 · 17 answers · asked by Meeshmai 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Why do some of you hang around looking for an opportunity to say something mean or stupid? What- you don't have anything else to do ? If you can't answer the question I am asking - step off.

2007-11-10 19:47:00 · update #1

Eschatology this sounds interesting..where can I study on this???

2007-11-10 19:47:57 · update #2

So MarlyneB you are saying that the rapture is pre trib time..so why is there all this confusion as to pre trib during trib, and post trib rapture??
Youar are so very helpful. xxxP.

2007-11-10 20:10:20 · update #3

Isaiah: Why do you think it is misinterpretation...what do you think those scriptures refer to?

2007-11-10 20:37:13 · update #4

17 answers

The most used scripture alluding to the rapture is 1 Thessalonians 4:vs 13-17 now consider this:

First of all, the very nature of the Tribulation precludes the church going through any of it. The T. is a time of wrath,judment,indignation,darkness, destructiona nd death. Paul wrote "There is therefore now no condemnation (judgment)to those who are in Christ Jesus" Bomans 8:1

The church (body of Christ,believers) have been cleansed by the blood of Jesus and need no other purification. Some ask,"Don't Christians need to be cleansed?" The answer is yes, but they are cleansed through confession of sin and the blood covering of Jesus Christ,not personal suffering. "If we confess our sins, He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. (1 John 1:9)

Paul is, in 2 Thess.2. dealimg with believers in Thessalonica who were going through great persecution and wanted to know if they were induring it as part of the Tribulation and whether Paul was right when he said in his 1st letter to them that Christians would not go through the Tribulation. And Paul tells them they are not in the T. Paul says "that Day will not come unless the falling away comes first, and the man of sin is revealed,the son of perdition"(vs 3).

The "man of sin" is the Antichrist, who will come from the federated states of Europe, the final form of Gentile world power.

the Antichrist has not yet appear "for the mystery of lawlessness is already at work, only He who now restrains (hinders) will do so (keep on hindering)until He is taken out of the way" vs 7 (the Holy Sp[irit and see below...

Who is restraining Satan from presenting the Antichrist to the world as God? It is the church,the salt of the earth, that conquors corruption on contact. When the Lord Jesus appears in the clouds of heaven to remove the church from earth, God's restraint will be removed and Satan can then accompllish his purpose of dominating the world-but not until the church has been raptured from the earth.

This is not the Second Coming of Christ-that occures when he returns during the millinnium (thousand year reign on earth) during which time satan and his demonic angels are confined in the bottomless pit. Rev. 20:1-3 which says "Then I saw am angel coming down from heaven,having the key to the bottomless pit, and a great chain in his hand. vs 2. He laid hold of the dragon,that serpent of old, who is the devil and satan , and bound him for a thousand years. vs 3. and he canst him into the bottom less pit and shut him ujp, and set a seal on him, so that he should deceivce the nations no more til the thousand years were finished. But after these things he must be released for a little while"

To find out why he is released, read Rev. 20:4-10 or to the end of that chapter.

Satan knows scripture ,he quoted it to Jesus during the wilderness 30 days trials of the 3 times satan tried to temp[t Jesus to worship him,etc. and satan knows his ending but the fool still thinks he can pull his evil plans off!

Aren't some unbelievers as foolish is thinking there is no God, no blood atonement of Jesus on Calvary to redeem sinners for all eternity from the penalty of sin? Hope this helps, Peapie

2007-11-10 19:45:54 · answer #1 · answered by marlynembrindle 5 · 1 0

Most of the references to the end times refer to something called the Parousia (Greek word) or the second coming. There is very slim scriptural support for the rapture. That is what there are so many views of Eschatology.

Normally I advise people to simply believe that Christ is returning (that is promised) and to be found working for Christ when he returns. Read 2 Peter it is an excellent guidebook in this respect.

--edit How the end times will occur really boils down to this. We will find out. Everyone will.

--edit I disagree with those who say there is no support for it. There is nearly equal support for each of the Christian views of Eschatology.

2007-11-10 18:45:00 · answer #2 · answered by δοῦλος Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ 5 · 1 0

The Bible can absolutely prove what the Bible says, Phoenix!

about rapture, i think the best scriptural evidence you are gonna get is in Matthew 24.

Research a bit on the Seventh Day Adventist view regarding end time events. It seems a bit more consistent with the entire Bible.

2007-11-10 18:43:36 · answer #3 · answered by Andrew K 1 · 1 1

I Thes 4:17 is the only place in the NT where it is referred to directly, and even this is kinda ambiguous.

I Corinthians 15:52 has another reference to a literal rapture, but it is even more convoluted than the Thessalonians one.

2007-11-10 18:35:56 · answer #4 · answered by SDW 6 · 3 1

John 14:3. 1 Corinthians 15:52-55 and 16:22. 1 Thessalonians 1: 10 and 3:13. John 11:24 and 14:3. These are a little long to print out the whole wording so please look them up. God Bless...

2007-11-10 18:43:14 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Some verse in Thessalonians refers to Jesus' followers being called up at the End of Days. It doesn't actually use the term Rapture, but it's the same general concept.

2007-11-10 18:38:42 · answer #6 · answered by Nowhere Man 6 · 2 1

They misinterpret the following:

1Cr 15:51 Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed,


1Cr 15:52 In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed.

1Th 4:16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:


1Th 4:17 Then we which are alive [and] remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.


1Th 4:18 Wherefore comfort one another with these words.

2007-11-10 18:38:06 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

Nothing proves that there is a rapture.
Interpretation is always sectarian and personal.
Remember that it is said that the Devil knows well the Scriptures.

2007-11-10 18:34:40 · answer #8 · answered by sadhanusar 1 · 3 1

Of course there is a rapture and it is happening next Tuesday at three pm.

2007-11-10 18:36:51 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Ditto Phoenix the scriptures are not proof.
Assert,promulgate ,tell, forecast,maybe; but not prove.

2007-11-10 18:41:06 · answer #10 · answered by dogpatch USA 7 · 2 2

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