or in a plural sense if there is only one God or does this not imply a Godhead. I am just trying to under stand where this comes from ?
2007-11-10 17:31:45 · 4 answers · asked by Choas 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
go to classical english study what is a royal phrase
why the english kings used to address themselves as we there was one king not two
2007-11-10 21:38:43 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
during the times the quran was revealed, poerty was everything to the Arabs. This is its origin. In Arabic, even today, it is classy to use the plural instead of the singular when saying certain phrases. ex: "Assalamu Alaykum" is plural.
2007-11-11 01:37:20 · answer #2 · answered by 412envy 7 · 3⤊ 2⤋
They say "Allah has no partners", but say that Allah has to use THEIR version of the Holy Spirit to relay messages. They call the Holy Spirit one of the archangels, Gabriel.
THE Holy Spirit implies ONE Holy Spirit, and does not account for the OTHER archangels as "holy spirits".
This is just one of Mohammad's many many blunders. It wasn't his fault though, almost all his "recitation" is based on misconception and gnostic heresy. He was just a messenger for himself.
2007-11-11 01:37:19 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
The Arabic word is completely singular however when the translation is made it is made into a royal "we" or "us" to denote power.
That is why scripture must not be translated without deep knowledge of the original language.
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2007-11-11 01:37:27 · answer #4 · answered by kloneme 3 · 6⤊ 2⤋