In order to understand many of Paul's epistle's one must take into account the time they were written in. As well as the place. For example in his letter to the Corinthian church where he tells the women to be silent. As I understand it at that time the men and women sat on opposite sides of the church. Many times the women were uneducated. When the preacher taught something they did not understand they would yell across to their husband and ask him to explain. It caused disruptions in the church. Thus Paul told them to be quiet. Much of the 1 letter to the Corinthians deals with a church which has become unruly. A church that has no order and are letting people get totally out of control. The cultural aspects as well as the place the letter was going to is important to read.
For an example of a woman not being silent in church read where Priscilla gets Apollos and corrects his teaching.
2007-11-10 13:11:03
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answer #1
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answered by Bible warrior 5
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Peter had some differences with Paul,but were
later resolved.
The silent in the church for women didn't mean you couldn't lift you voice in praise to sing.This means not to take an office
or position that was meant for man.Not to usurp
authority over man in church matters.
This command is abused in the unscriptual liberal churches today.
2007-11-10 13:28:00
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Perhaps, but I do think you already understand a basic premise required for clarity.
Paul's letters were just that...letters. More specifically, many if not all, read as though they were written in response to a set of questions the various churches asked him (either in person or in writing). I can think of several situations in my experience with churches in which the "women shouldn't speak in church" rule made sense. For example, I recall a woman that would speak out against her husband in church...I don't think that's appropriate...perhaps Paul didn't elaborate on what he meant by "speaking out" because the people he was writing to already knew he was referring to women contradicting their husband in church.
...or perhaps Paul was confirming that he agreed with a solution they told him they implemented to solve a temporary problem...perhaps forbiding women to speak caused a group of women that were stiring up trouble to lose their platform and be forced to go elsewhere to spread trouble???).
Yes, perhaps it would be interesting to have the opportunity to ask Paul about the context of his letters...but I don't need to do that to understand what they mean for me. I can take my questions to God and he'll reveal the truth to me directly (in his own time of course). Ask and it shall be given you, seek and you shall find!
2007-11-10 15:32:21
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answer #3
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answered by KAL 7
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Most of Paul's writing were directed to people within his time (like the eg. you gave) but are very applicable today.
1 Corinthians 14:34
34Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience as also saith the law.
35And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.
When the apostle exhorts Christian women to seek information on religious subjects from their husbands at home, it shows that believing families ought to assemble for promoting spiritual knowledge. The Spirit of Christ can never contradict itself; and if their revelations are against those of the apostle, they do not come from the same Spirit. The way to keep peace, truth, and order in the church, is to seek that which is good for it, to bear with that which is not hurtful to its
welfare, and to keep up good behavior, order, and decency.
Paul was not saying that women should not take part in service Etc. He was just explaining that all things should be done in decency. We are not suppose to disrupt service to ask questions or speak in tongues if there is no one there to interpret or it is inappropriate, Consequently, if there remain questions on your mind about current issues being put forward, then its best to go about it in a decent way.
God bless
2007-11-10 13:16:59
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answer #4
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answered by ? 5
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No.The epistles are canon,and mesh perfectly with the rest of Scripture.And your example is not what the passage is stating.Whenever you have a problem understanding a verse you need to back up and read the entire chapter again.And go throughout Scripture to see other prooftexts.If you still have a problem with a doctrine it is your problem of pride,not God's Word.
2007-11-10 13:14:46
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Hello,
i hope ye are well,
i wonder whether in the plain when Jesus gave the semon there were any voince in Prase to God, or easier in the last journey to Jerusalem even the childs i can imagine praised God, but His Cross was very close, at hand, but for the Glory of God and man´s salvation. Times have changed, but God´s word as Jesus said: 18For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. Matthew 5:18
Have a nice time
------------------------Kindest Regards----------------------------------
-----------------------Grace be with you---------------------------------
------------------ http://www(dot)srac(dot)de ----------------------------
- http://www(dot)youtube(dot)com/watch?v=ho5pmVJM1SY -
2007-11-10 13:30:19
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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I have all I need.
2007-11-10 13:07:55
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answer #7
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answered by Anthem Demon R&S addict 6
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