In Ezekial 20:25, God says,
"Wherefore I gave them also statutes that were not good, and judgments whereby they should not live."
Am I correct in saying that this passage says we should question the rules of the Bible?
2007-11-10 05:09:33 · 23 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
23 -- I lifted up mine hand unto them also in the wilderness, that I would scatter them among the heathen, and disperse them through the countries;
24 -- Because they had not executed my judgments, but had despised my statutes, and had polluted my sabbaths, and their eyes were after their fathers' idols.
25 -- Wherefore I gave them also statutes that were not good, and judgments whereby they should not live;
26 -- And I polluted them in their own gifts, in that they caused to pass through the fire all that openeth the womb, that I might make them desolate, to the end that they might know that I am the LORD.
2007-11-10 05:14:09 · update #1
Thanks Vitor, that would make sense. Still looking for more opinions, though.
2007-11-10 05:16:28 · update #2
I've come here to learn.
2007-11-10 05:17:36 · update #3
Your interpretation is not correct. As others have written, you must look at the entirety of God's message, not just at one verse.
God is saying here that the Jews sacrificed their firstborn (to Molech) and "polluted" themselves by following pagan customs. Because they did this, God permitted them to follow their desires, which lead them away from Him. Remember, we all have free will. God will force Himself onto no one.
Read Deuteronomy 28 for more information -- particularly the "curses" portion of the Chapter.
2007-11-10 05:20:09 · answer #1 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 4⤊ 0⤋
Firstly, there is something called irony. When someone does something really stupid, a friend is apt to say, "Boy, you're really smart, no?". So from the context of those who have strayed from God, His laws really seem "not good".
Secondly, Adam Clarke says that if God could have prevented something bad from happening but He did not, to Hebrew, that is considered as if God HAD done it.
Here is Clarke's commentary on this verse : "Eze 20:25 -
I gave them also statutes that were not good - What a foolish noise has been made about this verse by critics, believers and infidels! How is it that God can be said “to give a people statutes that were not good, and judgments whereby they could not live?” I answer, in their sense of the words, God never gave any such, at any time, to any people. Let any man produce an example of this kind if he can; or show even the fragment of such a law, sanctioned by the Most High! The simple meaning of this place and all such places is, that when they had rebelled against the Lord, despised his statutes, and polluted his Sabbaths - in effect cast him off, and given themselves wholly to their idols, then he abandoned them, and they abandoned themselves to the customs and ordinances of the heathen. That this is the meaning of the words, requires no proof to them who are the least acquainted with the genius and idioms of the Hebrew language, in which God is a thousand times said to do, what in the course of his providence or justice he only permits to be done.".
2007-11-10 05:29:14 · answer #2 · answered by flandargo 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Although you can question whatever you read whenever you want, you are incorrect on the meaning in this passage it says" judgments whereby they should not live" In other words don't do it, but THE CREATOR Allows us to choose betweenGood and Evil so there it is you should suspect the words when someone takes them out of context and when someone doesn't fully understand it like you just did here watch this :
"Wherefore I gave them also statutes that were not good, and judgments whereby they should not live."
"Wherefore I gave them that whereby they should not live." statutes that were not good, and judgments
now you understand
2007-11-10 05:15:55 · answer #3 · answered by the_one_real_servent 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
No - the following is from the Jamieson Fausset Brown Bible Commentary -
25. I gave them . . . statutes . . . not good—Since they would not follow My statutes that were good, "I gave them" their own (Eze 20:18) and their fathers' "which were not good"; statutes spiritually corrupting, and, finally, as the consequence, destroying them. Righteous retribution (Ps 81:12,Ho 8:11,Ro 1:24,2Th 2:11). Eze 20:39 proves this view to be correct (compare Isa 63:17). Thus on the plains of Moab (Nu 25:1-18), in chastisement for the secret unfaithfulness to God in their hearts, He permitted Baal's worshippers to tempt them to idolatry (the ready success of the tempters, moreover, proving the inward unsoundness of the tempted); and this again ended necessarily in punitive judgments.
2007-11-10 05:21:42 · answer #4 · answered by Scabius Fretful 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Always someone trying to twist the Truth...
it says "Be cause THEY (MAN) had not executed my judgements , but had despised my statutes, and had polluted my sabbaths and thier eyes were after thier fathers idols Wherefore i gave them also statutes that were not good , and judgements whereby they should not live; AND I polluted them in thier own Gifts in that they caused to pass through the fire all that openeth the womb , that I might make them desolate , to the end that they might know that I AM LORD "
That is to say He gave them over to thier own wants desires and SELFS...............that was His statutes and judgements..HE GAVE THEM WHAT THEY WANTED..just as it is today...and its by thier own judgements and words and deeds and actions....that they go through all that they go through...same as it is today if one fails to Follow HIS WORD...." It says this " Whatsoever a man soweth that shall he also reap "" and my friend if you sow good you reap good and if you sow bad you reap the bad...........
And it rains on the Just and Unjust alike !!!!
2007-11-10 05:20:07 · answer #5 · answered by hghostinme 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Great find I will look into this.............I like the one that also states that there isn't a man amongst you..........will have to find that one too...........he was talking to a church full of people so you know that there were men there...I suspect that they didn't have strong convictions. So maybe women can have convictions as strong as a mans or more so than most.
You have a 100% woman that is not gay stating this. I think we should interpet it for ourselves....as men human men put the book together....check out a good encylopedia. Study always...........check things out for yourself it always pay off in the long run...........and don't forget to look at both sides of the stories there are truths to be found there . Have a great day and thank you. May the Creator always be with you on your journey.
2007-11-10 05:25:52 · answer #6 · answered by rainbowmatrixs 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Its really hard to read just one verse or chapter and come to the conculsion of meaning- Have you read all of Ezekial?
The meaning of Ezekial is " God strengthens" and the Book of Ezekiel is amazing-
Ezekiel was in Babylon with Jewish captives just before the final invasion of their homeland. He saw God as a fire, about to destroy Jerusalem, God would show his holiness in this terrible judgment. God is our FATHER- he warned his people of sin- and what would happen if they did not change thier ways. They choose to SIN rather than choosing GOD.
It actually shows you in thoose verses that no matter what you do, there will be judgments. GOD is the only way, the truth and the light. Sin leads to lies, death, and judgement.
2007-11-10 05:22:53 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
You're wrong. God is saying they worshiped idols(verse 24) and burned children (verse 26) Basically he says he helped them and they spit in his face. His statutes were not treated with respect and judgments were ignored( they will not have life after death).
You obviously have not studied the Bible and you have left out verses you should have included.
2007-11-10 05:20:01 · answer #8 · answered by Ruth 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I think the Bible gives us choices where we can pick and choose how we follow his teachings. Wisdom, Knowledge
and understand are key issues in interpreting the writers.
2007-11-10 05:17:00 · answer #9 · answered by Joan Sandverysmart 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Whoa nelly, When making such a statement we should concider the person speaking in regards to this passage.
2007-11-10 05:14:00 · answer #10 · answered by Lookin&tryingAnew 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋