English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

John 19:10 - "Do you refuse to speak to me?" Pilate said. "Don't you realize I have power either to free you or to crucify you?"

Despite the fact that it was the will of God, just like in justice is he culpable?

2007-11-10 01:07:30 · 15 answers · asked by Emerald 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

15 answers

@veritas,
You said the truth viewing this as a biblical fact or the will of God, OK.
@J R you have my same point of view.

Reading that event, Pilate categorically made it clear to the masses: "I find no basis for a charge against this man."

If this shall become a debate, he is culpable!
And he also made this declaration, I PILATE has the power to free you or crucify you.

Why did the masses brought Jesus to Pilate?
Because power and authority were in his hands.

Had it been in these days of ours, can a chief judge say (I sentenced him because of the pressure mounted on me by the masses)
I don’t think or he too will face judgement and condemnation.
If I take a look on this issue out of the fact that it was the will of God to redeem humanity and that it was prophesised before, I’ll condemn Pontus Pilate for his declarations and act.

The audience may lift.

Courrrrrrrt!!!

2007-11-10 03:18:57 · answer #1 · answered by Mally 2 · 1 0

In the follow up verse, Jesus states that Pilate has no authority except that which is given to him from above. So from this answer from Christ we can infer 2 things.

1. Pilate had the authority to crucify Christ, which he did.

2. Pilate also had the authority to turn down the Jews and release Christ.

If you read the account closely, you will see that Pilate allowed the crucifixion as a crowd control measure, he sought to allay the masses so that there would not be a revolt. So in the end, yes Pilate is culpable in the death of Christ...

... But then again, so are we all.

"For all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God."
-Romans 3:23

2007-11-10 01:15:03 · answer #2 · answered by J.R. 3 · 5 2

The biblical record shows that earthquakes befell till now Jerusalem became destroyed in A.D. 70. 2 earthquakes are reported in Matthew: while Jesus became crucified and while the stone rolled faraway from the tomb the place Jesus became buried. This 2d earthquake is asserted to have been “intense” or “super”. Luke information in Acts that “an incredible earthquake” shook “the guidelines of the penal complex residing house” (Acts sixteen:26). Secular historians of the time help the biblical record. “And as to earthquakes, many are reported by utilising writers for the period of a era merely previous to 70 A.D. there have been earthquakes in Crete, Smyrna, Miletus, Chios, Samos, Laodicea, Hierapolis, Colosse, Campania, Rome, and Judea. the city of Pompeii became a lot broken by utilising an earthquake happening on February 5, sixty 3 A.D. The critical earthquakes happening between this prophecy and the destruction of Jerusalem have been, (a million) an incredible earthquake in Crete, A.D. forty six or forty seven; (2) one at Rome A.D. fifty one; (3) one at Apamaea in Phrygia, reported by utilising Tacitus, A.D. fifty 3; (4) one at Laodicea in Phrygia, A.D. 60; (5) one in Campania.

2016-10-02 00:52:04 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No, Pilate found Jesus to be innocent. Pilate did have that power however it was left up to the general public to decide.

2007-11-10 01:26:29 · answer #4 · answered by LaptopJesus 5 · 0 1

He really had nothing to do with Jesus until the Jews made it political by asking him that he was no friend of Cesar's! Pilate still tried to get out of it.

2007-11-10 01:12:24 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

It doesn't matter what Pilate said and what power he thought he had. What matters is what God had to say..
John 10:17-18
Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again.
No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.

IHS Jim

2007-11-10 01:31:23 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

J.R. is partly right.

Jesus himself admitted...
(Matthew 26:54) In that case, how would the Scriptures be fulfilled that it must take place this way?”

2007-11-10 01:29:22 · answer #7 · answered by pugjw9896 7 · 0 0

it was the will of man utilizing the gift of God, to exercise on your own choice , free will to choose evil or good; to choose life after death or not; only God knows what is really contained in the heart of someone and that is why judgment is his , not ours.

2007-11-10 01:11:13 · answer #8 · answered by sml 6 · 3 1

It makes no difference, because Jesus Christ had referred to the pagan Romans when he said, "forgive them, for they know not what they do."

2007-11-10 01:10:46 · answer #9 · answered by Digital Age 6 · 2 1

No one person is guilty of the execution of Christ.

Pilate had a hand and so did some of the Jewish leaders. And so did Judas. A lot of people worked together to bring about his conviction and death. Yet, God allowed it and Christ submitted to it although He could have freed Himself at any moment.

And don't forget all of us are guilty of His death in a way because our sin is what necessitated the sacrifice of the God-Man. Our sins nailed Him to the cross.

Pax Vobiscum+

2007-11-10 01:10:06 · answer #10 · answered by Veritas 7 · 7 4

fedest.com, questions and answers