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At year 2513, Moses at Exodus, 3560 years ago, at 2007 C. E. bible circulating in the world 396 years, why?
Why so long after Moses or Jesus is the bible made available?

2007-11-09 17:28:43 · 22 answers · asked by jeni 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

With the fllood at 4417 years ago, &
3705 years ago, Genesis ended,
3640 years ago, Job's book ended,
3560 years ago, Exodus Moses 80,
3520 years ago, death of Moses,
3519 years ago, Jordan crossed,
3219 years ago, Judges 11:26;
3090 years ago, Samuel 100, dies.
3044 years ago, David age 70 dies.
3004 years ago, Solomon 69, died.
2613 years ago, no Judah king.
2007 years ago, Jesus in Rome #6.
0396 years ago, bible published.

2007-11-10 08:01:49 · update #1

In 2007 after Christ,

Can we imagine what Moses has in the wilderness to write Genesis,
Job, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers &
Deuteronomy on? 3560 to 3540 years ago. Year 2513 to 2553 and
857 to 897 years after the flood at
1553 to 1513 before Christ, Moses
and heirs had their experience with
Egypt world Empire #1, Christ Jesus has his experience with Rome world Empire #6, his parents had to take him to Egypt as an infant to keep him safe. The time involved in bringing this book together and the fact that it has survived to be here 396 years from 1611 C. E. to 2007 C. E. for the world to examine. All this reality is a story to ponder, there are so many ways to figure the time from Adam to Christ and from Christ to 2007 C. E.
I really appreciate all the facts to Noah son #10, Abraham son #20 in Jesus genealogy Matt.1:1-17; to
David son #34 [ how much time? ],
Jechoiachin son #48 and Jesus son #62 [ how much time? ], how good is our excuse not to know the time involved?

2007-11-12 04:45:09 · update #2

22 answers

Multiple edits prior to release of the finished product.

2007-11-09 17:32:45 · answer #1 · answered by Vermicious Knid 2 · 6 2

most people of that time could not read or write and most of the existing churches did not wont the public to have the bible.only priests and kings had access to it. the story of this is told in the history of the Lutheran church. in the old days if they couldn't read or write it was passed on by word of mouth from parents to their kids. and also during those times the devil was working over time and the world had a lot of non believers who wanted to stay close tho their pagan roots. once the bible was made available to the public more and more people begain to show interest and discovered that the bible held more knowledge then the priest were teaching them. up untill this point in time priest told the people that they could buy their salvation .
http://christianity.about.com/od/lutherandenomination/a/lutheranhistory.htm

http://www.stjohnlutheran.org/history_of_lutheran_church.htm




(((this is for the person above me who doesnt understand the question)))

Is it possible to ask a question that no one wants to try to answer about the bible then and now?

she wants to know if it is possible to as a question about the bible that no one wants to answer? weither the question was asked in the time the bible was being written or now after we have had it for 100's of years ( at least thats the way i see the question) <>
At year 2513, Moses at Exodus, 3560 years ago, at 2007 C. E. bible circulating in the world 396 years, why?
Why so long after Moses or Jesus is the bible made available?

----------
moses was living in exodus in the bible year of 2513 which would make that 3569 years ago from today. why did it take so long for the bible to be made available to the public?
<<< MY ANSWER IS AT THE TOP>>>

2007-11-10 04:51:22 · answer #2 · answered by unitedfaith 4 · 2 0

When you think about the process of it's origin, People had to have enough education to write, and read the words of the bible, the alphabet had to be created,and taught to humans, paper invented, writing implements, prophecy fulfilled there are many factors playing into the equasion, not to mention the enormous controversy down through the ages. Had it not been for the books value to the survivial of humankind it could have been destroyed that alone impresses that GOD is watching over his"Instruction Manual" .I for one am so awed by his word I am so apprective that it did get published in a language we can understand and use in our everyday existance.
And YES there are questions then and now that no one wants to try to answer. The questions,themselves are overwhelming to think about.

2007-11-10 11:40:12 · answer #3 · answered by rjm 4 · 0 0

The Scrolls were written, as you've seen many were reading the Old testament because In the New Testament they were following the Jewish Law, also, they carried The Arc of The Covenant around with them, with Gods laws, this Bible wasn't all the way finished until John finished Revelation and the scrolls were delivered to the Churches but it was being read all through these times, there are still scrolls to be opened read Revelation, Everything will follow Prophesy.

2007-11-10 01:34:18 · answer #4 · answered by Lynn C 5 · 5 2

Moses began writing the first part of the Bible in 1513 B.C.E.
John finished it with Reverlation in 96 A.D.
We have had 2,000 years to try every sort of government and in each case they have failed to being peace and good health.
It is to prove that man is unable to run his own affairs without the help of God.

(Jeremiah 10:23) I well know, O Jehovah, that to earthling man his way does not belong. It does not belong to man who is walking even to direct his step.

2007-11-10 01:47:32 · answer #5 · answered by pugjw9896 7 · 2 1

Moses wrote the 5 first books silly, and the bible has been avial in parts even before Jesus was born.
Your OT prophets wrote their books, and the NT, written by Math/Mark/Luke/John/Peter/Paul..there is no down time that long.
The dead sea scrolls were even written before the printing press!
Which authenticated the bible even more.
The bible, has been and is still the top seller, and continues to pour water on the gates of hell.
Keep reading, your search continues, and will be blessed.

2007-11-10 01:43:49 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 3

Perhaps because the level of education was limited mostly to nobility and the scribes who had to transcribe each copy manually. The bible was created through God's spiritual intervention and quite frankly he has always kept his own time table without my assistance or understanding because he is GOD. Why if GOD is GOD are we so arrogant as to try to comprehend or second guess him ? The ant trying to understand the universe.

2007-11-10 01:39:26 · answer #7 · answered by Noelle M 4 · 3 1

Not quite sure of what you're trying to relate the dates to or why. Jewish/Hebrew culture was not a "missionary" one until Christianity. That is they considered, and still do, that the were a chosen people and converts are not encouraged.

2007-11-10 01:36:21 · answer #8 · answered by Pirate AM™ 7 · 2 1

Reasons quackery persists


Ignorance: An uneducated consumer is more likely to fall victim to implausible treatments.

The placebo effect: Medicines or treatments known to have no effect on a disease can still affect a people's perception of their illness. People report reduced pain, increased well-being, improvement, or even total alleviation of symptoms. Both the practitioner and consumer can draw the wrong conclusion that the treatment was effective.

The regression fallacy: Certain "self-limiting conditions", almost always improve in a rather predictable amount of time. A patient may associate the usage of treatments with recovering, when recovery was inevitable.

Post hoc ergo propter hoc fallacy: One recovers after taking a specific medicine or treatment, and therefore it is assumed the recovery is caused by the medicine or treatment. In reality, however, it is not necessarily caused by the specific medicine or treatment.

Price: There are some people who simply cannot afford conventional treatment, and seek out a cheaper alternative.

Desperation: People with a serious or terminal disease, or who have been told by their practitioner that their condition is "untreatable," may react by seeking out treatment, disregarding the lack of scientific proof for its effectiveness, or even the existence of evidence that the method is ineffective or even dangerous.

Pride: Once a person has endorsed or defended a cure, or invested time and money in it, they may be reluctant to admit its ineffectiveness, and therefore recommend the cure that did not work for them to others.

Fraud: Manufacturers, fully aware of the ineffectiveness of their medicine, may intentionally produce fraudulent scientific studies and medical test results, thereby confusing practitioners and consumers as to the effectiveness of the medical treatment.
Anti-elitism: Quacks often portray themselves as members of the "common people" who care about those in need.


there you have it.

2007-11-10 01:39:17 · answer #9 · answered by eelai000 5 · 0 6

Constantine?

2007-11-10 01:31:48 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

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