2007-11-09 15:27:31 · 18 answers · asked by christiandefenderfaith 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Lots of people who call themselves Christians think so. But not everyone who says, "Lord, Lord," belongs to Christ. To many he will say, "I never knew you."
Jesus taught that sex is reserved for marriage. Mark 10:6: "But at the beginning of creation God 'made them male and female.' 'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh.' So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate."
Sexual fidelity begins in the heart. Matt 5:27: "You have heard that it was said, 'Do not commit adultery.' But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart."
Sexual immorality estranges a man from God, making him unclean and thus unfit for heaven. Mark 7:20: He went on: "What comes out of a man is what makes him 'unclean.' For from within, out of men's hearts, come evil thoughts, sexual immorality, theft, murder, adultery, greed, malice, deceit, lewdness, envy, slander, arrogance and folly. All these evils come from inside and make a man 'unclean.' "
Those who listen to the world and try to remake Christianity in a way that conforms to this world have to decide between the God and mammon. Romans 12:2: "Do not conform any longer to the pattern of this world, but be transformed by the renewing of your mind. Then you will be able to test and approve what God's will is—his good, pleasing and perfect will."
Cheers,
Bruce
2007-11-09 15:40:34 · answer #1 · answered by Bruce 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Yes, the act of homosexuality is one of the sexual immorality mentioned by Christ. It is not the homosexual as a person that is not good but the sexual act of two same sex that is bad and makes it no worse than any other sin which goes against God's law, like all the other evils that come out of the human person. So it is not because you are a homosexual that you be unclean but when you use sex badly. Whoever is in sin is 'unclean'.
2016-05-29 00:59:36 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Short answer, no...or perhaps yes...
The term "acceptable" can be interpreted in several ways.
Acceptable can mean that something is ok...that God doesn't care about sexual morality. That's a big no...the entire bible is consistent about this including the words of Jesus.
Acceptable can also imply being receptive to...in this context, saying sexual immorality (including homosexuality) is not acceptable suggests that God might shun people that practice sexual immorality. This perspective changes the answer to yes...Jesus made it clear that God is quite willing to forgive sexual immorality...Jesus reached out to and embraced all types of sinners.
Some people may not be aware of the harm they've brought to themselves (and others) because of activities (and even thoughts) identified by God as sexually immoral...but most of us can identify at least one painful incident related to some type of sexual activity. He wants nothing more than to heal us of those past hurts and help us avoid hurting ourselves or others in the future. In that context, Jesus made it very clear that God will accept all forms of sexual immorality INCLUDING homesexuality from anyone who is willing to lay that burden at his feet and ask for his help.
2007-11-09 15:55:41 · answer #3 · answered by KAL 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Nope.
Partly because he never taught that homosexuality was immoral.
In fact, the word homosexual does not appear in early translations of the Bible. Nowhere in the Bible is sex between two men explicitly proscribed in the original Greek or Hebrew. English translators added this to the Bible where it did not exist in the first place.
The closest that the Bible comes to saying "Man shall not have sex with another man" is a proscription of man lying with a man as with a woman. While this may appear clear to some people today, it really isn't. Why can this not mean that a man shouldn't treat a man as a woman? To treat a man as a woman could be an insult. Does a man having sex with another man constitute treating that man as a woman? Of course not.
The Bible DOES list a great number of sexual relationships that are specifically forbidden. A man can't have sex with his father's wife, etc. If the Bible is so explicit with these other relationships, why is it not so with homosexual ones?
2007-11-09 15:51:52 · answer #4 · answered by Deirdre H 7 · 1⤊ 3⤋
Christ himself was learned in the scriptures. What scriptures were they ? The Old Testament books of Moses and the prophets . In Matt 22:29 Christ criticizes those who are unlearned in the scriptures. If its good enough for Jesus , it's good enough for me. So the answer would be , No, this is not acceptable behavior to God, since this is clearly forbidden in the Old Testament. Lev 20:13.
2007-11-09 15:46:07 · answer #5 · answered by wrench'n away 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Christ did not verbally state or teach anything specific about homosexuality, but He honored His father God's word and would never go against His Father in Heaven. Those who believe the bible to be God-breathed and therefore infallible must agree that Jesus would uphold and defend God's stance on homosexuality. Those individuals who argue that the bible doesn't specifically speak on the topic because the actual word doesn't appear in a scripture are only kidding themselves ... God's word is clear:
"You shall not lie with a male as with a woman; it is an abomination." Leviticus 18:22
"If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination; they shall surely be put to death; their blood is upon them." Leviticus 20:13
"For this reason God gave them up to xdishonorable passions. For their women exchanged natural relations for those that are contrary to nature; and the men likewise gave up natural relations with women and were consumed with passion for one another, men committing shameless acts with men and receiving in themselves the due penalty for their error." Romans 1:26-27
With that said, God hates the sin ... not the sinner and so it is with those of us who follow Christ. In America, the freedom of speech has been one of our greatest rights yet, when a Christian speaks out publicly against Gay and Lesbian marriage, non-Christians take offense ... some to the extent of accusing the individual of being guilty of a hate crime. Can you not see that ... when you verbally take offense about someone's view point, you then become the offender!
If you are a homosexual, know this ... I am a Christ follower and based on the word of God, I cannot condone homosexuality. I am not a hater because of my beliefs ... I may not agree with your beliefs but it does not make me a hater ... When did American's decide everyone is entitled to their own beliefs except Christians?
2015-04-30 06:11:18 · answer #6 · answered by jazziejazzgirl 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Did Jesus ever teach that we are not to judge our fellow men? Repent from this sin against God before it is to late for you.
2007-11-09 16:09:00 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋
David says to Jonathan: "very pleasant has thou been unto me: thy love to me was wonderful, passing the love of woman." 2 Samuel 1:26
smile and enjoy the night
2007-11-09 15:45:31 · answer #8 · answered by lazaruslong138 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Jesus said nothing about homosexuals but he did oppose Fornicators or at least didn't hold them in high esteem.
2007-11-09 15:34:00 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋
In short No,but Lot did preach about it
2007-11-09 15:41:55 · answer #10 · answered by arabianhotsauce 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋