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2007-11-08 13:01:52 · 11 answers · asked by Antares 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=AilxNHs1NgdkQukxweAyjVTsy6IX;_ylv=3?qid=20071108174605AALuLSg

2007-11-08 13:02:32 · update #1

Basically, it says in Matthew that Jesus did not agree that Christ was gonna be 'from Davids progeny'.

2007-11-08 13:06:05 · update #2

No, Jesus says: David calls Christ: Lord.

Therefore, how could Christ be from Davids children???

2007-11-08 13:07:06 · update #3

Enviro, did you just ignore the last part of the verse where Jesus says: how can he be his son?

he meant Christ being Davids son

2007-11-08 13:10:15 · update #4

11 answers

its too complicated. the public is not smart. not saying the whole public is stupid, just a lot. besides, there's not as many christians as you think on R&S.

)o(

2007-11-08 13:11:47 · answer #1 · answered by Pluto VT 3 · 1 0

I will. King David and Jesus are in the same liniage.
Its saying that in the psalms.
Reread it again.
The offshoot of David will be an everlasting King..paraphrased.
Isaiah, in fact 400 years earlier, writes that Jesus, future king, will be born in Bethlehem. Here is a prophet that fortells 400 years ealier.

Well at least your attempting. Some folks need bible 101!

2007-11-08 13:12:32 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

I did...

The Jews believed Christ would be the son of David…and he was he was the root of David as seen in Revelations:
(I am the root and the offspring of David) Revelation 22:16 I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star.

Jesus was both the son of David as in the root of David and the son of God

2007-11-08 13:18:25 · answer #3 · answered by ' 4 · 2 0

I know that people catch on this, but I don't know what you are getting at. Jesus said the truth. I would have to see more information on why you had a question about it. Jesus was basically saying what He said in other places: He is the LORD that David was referring to. That would mean to them that they had GOD sitting there in front of them. That made them kinda quiet, understandably.

2007-11-08 13:17:44 · answer #4 · answered by Christian Sinner 7 · 1 0

Jesus was the begotten son of g_d. The line of David was a shall we say a high lineage line for the Jews.

There was no relationship between the Davidic line and Christ.

As the Jesus persona was a Jew and walked [supposedly within the Jewish ideology] they needed him to have lineage. Lineage was very important in the early Jewish belief system.

Luke and Matthew had different lineages for Jesus. Both Jewish but different in that one had him descending from Adam and one had him descending from Abraham. Read them both you will see the difference.

2007-11-08 13:22:31 · answer #5 · answered by Tricia R 5 · 0 2

But Calmness, you have not read carefully. Did Jesus positively affirm that Messiah was not of the line of David, or did he, as a brilliant teacher, expose an inconsistency in Jewish Messianic theology by asking them a hard question? It seems to be the latter to me. In Psalm 110:1, Messiah clearly is more than just human, for no human should be referred to with the title of deity. Yet the Jewish scholars of that time had missed this in the formulation of Messianic theology, thinking wrongly that Messiah would be no more than a remake of Moses: The Movie, where God sends some gifted man to set Israel free from her Roman oppressors. Therefore Jesus did not falsify claims regarding his human Jewishness; He falsified the deficiencies of Rabbinic interpretations concerning Messiah’s divinity.

Edit:

The difference in the two genealogies is both intentional and necessary to Jesus' dual claim; that he comes from the line of David, and is qualified to sit on David's throne. Matthew tracks Jesus' lineage through David to Joseph, establishing his legal right to be a king in Israel. But God also promised that due to the sins of one of David's later descendant's, no one from that line would ever actually be king. However, in Luke, the genealogy does something strange. The line of Jesus is traced through Heli (or Eli) rather than Jacob, Joseph’s father. In a common Jewish custom, the mother is not mentioned, but it happens that Heli is the father of Mary, not Joseph. Thus, Luke’s genealogy is different because it really is a different line, the line leading up to Mary. This solves the problem of the ban on kings from David’s later line, because Mary’s line breaks off from before the ban. Jesus is therefore uniquely qualified to sit on David’s throne. He truly is in the line of David, but not subject to the ban, as he would be if he were the literal son of Joseph. Indeed, since the main store of Jewish genealogical records were destroyed with the razing of the Jewish temple in 70 AD, nobody else can ever establish a legal claim to that throne. Chess match goes to … God.

2007-11-08 13:27:15 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Your question has been answered. Since Jesus was around (in Heaven) when David was annointed King, this is how David was able to call him Lord.

2007-11-08 13:08:44 · answer #7 · answered by Christmas Light Guy 7 · 1 1

KT answered you. And no, he didn't falsify anything. He was saying that David could not have been the Christ because of what he said there.

2007-11-08 13:05:34 · answer #8 · answered by Rebeckah 6 · 1 0

I didn't see it the first time.
Now that I see it, I don't understand it.

(If Jesus was "from Jews," then how did he falsify that claim?)

2007-11-08 13:04:46 · answer #9 · answered by NONAME 7 · 0 0

I don't know how to answer your question.....you'll need someone a lot more familiar with the Bible than I am.....sorry.

2007-11-08 13:04:28 · answer #10 · answered by daljack -a girl 7 · 0 0

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